SAIL Mental Ability Questions with answers

14. What is the logarithmic mean of r1 and r2?
(a) $\frac{r1 - r2}{\ln \frac{r1}{r2}}$ (Ans)
(b) $\frac{r1 - r2}{\ln \frac{r2}{r1}}$
(c) $\frac{r2 - r1}{\ln \frac{r1}{r2}}$
(d) $\frac{r1 - r2}{-\ln \frac{r1}{r2}}$

15. What is the Nusselt number?
(a) $\frac{C_p \cdot \mu}{k}$
(b) $\frac{hD}{k}$ (Ans)
(c) $\frac{h \cdot C_p}{\mu}$
(d) $\frac{C_p \cdot \mu}{h}$

16. Prandtl number is given by:
(a) $\frac{C_p \cdot \mu}{a}$
(b) $\frac{hD}{k}$
(c) $\frac{C_p \cdot \mu}{k}$ (Ans)
(d) $\frac{\mu}{h \cdot C_p}$

17. Thermal diffusivity is given by:
(a) $\frac{k}{\rho \cdot C_p}$ (Ans)
(b) $\frac{\rho \cdot C_p}{k}$
(c) $\frac{C_p \cdot \mu}{a}$
(d) $\frac{\mu}{hC_p}$

18. Grashoff number is given by:
(a) $\frac{g D^3 \beta \Delta T}{\mu^2}$ (Ans)
(b) $\frac{g D^2 \beta \Delta T}{\mu^2}$
(c) $g D^2 \beta \Delta T \mu$
(d) $\frac{g D^3 \beta \Delta T}{\mu}$

19. If $h_1$ = inner film coefficient and $h_2$ = outer film coefficient, then the overall heat transfer coefficient is:
(a) always less than $h_1$
(b) always between $h_1$ and $h_2$ (Ans)
(c) always higher than $h_2$
(d) dependent on metal resistance

20. Gratez number is given by:
(a) $\frac{mC_p}{kL}$ (Ans)
(b) $\frac{kL}{mC_p}$
(c) $\frac{mC_p}{k\mu}$
(d) $\frac{kL}{mC_p}$

21. In the equation $Q = UA \Delta t$; $\Delta t$ is:
(a) geometric mean temperature difference.
(b) arithmetic mean temperature difference.
(c) logarithmic mean temperature difference. (Ans)
(d) the difference of average bulk temperatures of hot and cold fluids.

22. Peclet number (Pe) is given by:
(a) $Pe = Re \cdot Pr$ (Ans)
(b) $Pe = \frac{Re}{Pr}$
(c) $Pe = \frac{Pr}{Re}$
(d) $Pe = Nu \cdot Re$

23. Prandtl number is the reciprocal of:
(a) Thermal diffusivity / Momentum diffusivity (Ans)
(b) thermal diffusivity x Momentum
(c) Thermal diffusivity x Mass diffusivity
(d) Mass diffusivity x Momentum diffusivity

24. Maximum heat transfer rate is obtained in:
(a) laminar
(b) turbulent (Ans)
(c) creeping
(d) transition region

25. Heat flux is the time rate of heat transfer per unit:
(a) length
(b) area (Ans)
(c) volume
(d) none of these

26. Nusselt number is the ratio of the:
(a) temperature gradient of the wall to that across the entire pipe. (Ans)
(b) temperature difference to the temperature gradient at the wall.
(c) heat flux at the wall to that across the entire pipe.
(d) none of these

27. Fouling factor:
(a) is a dimensionless quantity.
(b) does not provide a safety factor for design.
(c) accounts for additional resistances to heat flow. (Ans)
(d) none of these.

28. Viscosity of gases:
(a) increase very rapidly
(b) increase slowly (Ans)
(c) decrease slowly
(d) remain unaffected

29. Heat transfer coefficient $(h_1)$ for liquids increases with:
(a) increasing temperature (Ans)
(b) decreasing temperature
(c) decreasing Reynolds number
(d) none of these

30. At what value of Prandtl number, conduction is negligible in the turbulent core of a fluid flowing through a heated pipe?
(a) 0.5
(b) < 0.5
(c) > 0.6 (Ans)
(d) < 0.1

31. At $Pr > 1$, conduction in an ordinary fluid flowing through a heated pipe is limited to the:
(a) buffer zone
(b) turbulent core (Ans)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) viscous sub-layer

32. Conduction occurs in the buffer zone for a fluid flowing through a heated pipe, only when Prandtl number is:
(a) 0.1
(b) > 1
(c) < 1 (Ans)
(d) 1

33. Natural convection is characterized by:
(a) Grashoff number (Ans)
(b) Peclet number
(c) Reynolds number
(d) Prandtl number

34. Which of the following is unimportant in forced convection?
(a) Reynolds number
(b) Prandtl number
(c) Grashoff number (Ans)
(d) none of these

35. In forced convection, the heat transfer depends on:
(a) Re, Pr (Ans)
(b) Re, Gr
(c) mainly Gr
(d) Re only

36. The characteristic dimensionless groups for heat transfer to a fluid flowing through a pipe in laminar flow are:
(a) Re, Gz
(b) Nu, Pr
(c) Nu, Pr, Re
(d) Nu, Gz (Ans)

37. At what value of Prandtl number, the hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layers of a fluid flowing over a heated plate will be identical?
(a) 1 (Ans)
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) none of these

38. Reynold's analogy states that:
(a) $St = \frac{f}{2}$ (Ans)
(b) $St = \frac{f}{4}$
(c) $St = 4f$
(d) $St = f^{1/2}$

39. For what value of Prandtl number, $St = \frac{f}{2}$?
(a) 1.5
(b) 1 (Ans)
(c) > 1
(d) < 1

40. Which has the lowest Prandtl number?
(a) Liquid metal (Ans)
(b) Aqueous solution
(c) Water
(d) Lube oil

41. Dietus-Boelter equation used for the determination of heat transfer coefficient is valid:
(a) for fluids in laminar flow
(b) for fluids in turbulent flow (Ans)
(c) when Grashoff number is very important
(d) for liquid metals

42. For what value of Prandtl number, the Colburn analogy is valid?
(a) 0.06 to 120
(b) 0.6 to 120 (Ans)
(c) 1 to 103
(d) 1 to 50

43. Pick out the correct equation:
(a) $j_H = (St)(Pr)^{2/3} = \frac{f}{2}$ (Ans)
(b) $j_H = (St)(Pr)^{1/3} = \frac{f}{2}$
(c) $j_H = (St)^{2/3}(Pr) = \frac{f}{2}$
(d) $j_H = (St)^{1/3}(Pr) = \frac{f}{2}$

44. Choose the correct equation:
(a) $Nu = (Re)(Pr)(Gz)$
(b) $Nu = (Re)(Pr)(St)$ (Ans)
(c) $Nu = (Re)(Pr)$
(d) $Nu = (Pr)(St)$

45. For a liquid in laminar flow through a very long tube, when the exit fluid temperature approaches the wall temperature, the equation to be used is:
(a) $Nu = 0.023 Re^{0.8} Pr^{0.4}$
(b) $Nu = \frac{p}{2} Gz$
(c) $Nu = \frac{Re^{0.5} Pr}{4}$ (Ans)
(d) $Nu = \frac{Re}{Pr}$

46. The average temperature difference for heat exchangers is:
(a) logarithmic mean temperature difference (Ans)
(b) the average of inlet and outlet temperatures
(c) the geometric mean temperature difference
(d) none of these

47. Heat flux is defined as:
(a) heat transfer per unit time
(b) heat transfer per unit area (Ans)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

48. When the Nusselt number is very high, it indicates:
(a) poor heat transfer
(b) good heat transfer (Ans)
(c) none of these
(d) poor thermal conductivity

49. Thermal conductivity is the property of a material to:
(a) conduct heat (Ans)
(b) transfer energy
(c) transfer mass
(d) none of these

50. The unit of thermal conductivity is:
(a) W/m°C (Ans)
(b) W/m
(c) kg/m
(d) None of these

• Two 100-W, 200-V lamps are connected in series across a 200-V supply. The total power consumed by each lamp will be _____ watts.
  a. 50
  b. 100
  c. 200
  d. 300
  Answer: b. 100

• The material used for fuse must have:
  a. low melting point and low specific resistance
  b. high melting point and high specific resistance
  c. low melting point and high specific resistance
  d. high melting point and low specific resistance
  Answer: a. low melting point and low specific resistance

• The purpose of introducing a reactor in the ignition circuit of mercury are rectifier is to limit the:
  a. rate of change of current in the circuit
  b. voltage in the circuit
  c. power in the circuit
  d. rate of change of current in the circuit
  Answer: d. rate of change of current in the circuit

• Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high:
  a. resistance
  b. inductance
  c. capacitance
  d. voltage
  Answer: b. inductance

• The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is ______ ohm.
  a. 75
  b. 150
  c. 300
  d. 600
  Answer: a. 75

• In the case of a lossy capacitor, series equivalent resistance value will be:
  a. small
  b. large
  c. negligible
  d. infinite
  Answer: b. large

• Time constant of an R-C circuit increases if the value of resistance is:
  a. decreased
  b. increased
  c. constant
  d. halved
  Answer: b. increased

• Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a:
  a. resistor in series with contacts
  b. capacitor in parallel with contacts
  c. diode in series with contacts
  d. inductor in series with contacts
  Answer: b. capacitor in parallel with contacts

• dBm is a:
  a. ratio of power
  b. ratio of voltage
  c. logarithmic measure of power
  d. logarithmic measure of voltage
  Answer: a. ratio of power

• Decibel is a unit of:
  a. voltage ratio
  b. current ratio
  c. power ratio
  d. resistance ratio
  Answer: c. power ratio

• The absolute unit of resistance is of the dimension of:
  a. voltage/current
  b. current/voltage
  c. power/current
  d. none of these
  Answer: d. none of these

• The absolute unit of inductance is of the dimension of:
  a. voltage/current
  b. current/voltage
  c. power/current
  d. none of these
  Answer: d. none of these

• The applied voltage from the circuit being checked is disconnected when an ohmmeter is used because:
  a. the ohmmeter has no battery
  b. the ohmmeter has its own battery
  c. it creates a short circuit
  d. it gives incorrect readings
  Answer: b. the ohmmeter has its own battery

• An accurate voltmeter must have an internal impedance of:
  a. very high value
  b. low value
  c. moderate value
  d. variable value
  Answer: a. very high value

• A moving coil instrument can be used to measure:
  a. alternating current
  b. direct current
  c. both A and B
  d. none of these
  Answer: d. direct current

• The voltage drop across the moving coil of a 50-µA (f.s) PMMC meter at full-scale deflection is ---- the voltage drop across that of a 1-mA (f.s) PMMC meter at full-scale deflection.
  a. less than
  b. equal to
  c. more than
  d. none of these
  Answer: a. less than

• Voltage stress is maximum in a cable at the surface of the:
  a. conductor
  b. insulation
  c. shield
  d. insulator
  Answer: d. insulator

• The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on:
  a. mutual inductance and self-inductances of the two coils
  b. distance between the coils
  c. size of the coils
  d. all of these
  Answer: a. mutual inductance and self-inductances of the two coils

• The location of lightning arrestor is:
  a. near the load
  b. near the transformer
  c. near the generator
  d. near the switchgear
  Answer: b. near the transformer

• A conductor of length 1 meter moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 Wb/m² with a velocity of 25 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be ----- volt.
  a. 25
  b. 1
  c. 50
  d. 75
  Answer: c. 50

• In electrical machines, laminated cores are used with a view to reducing:
  a. hysteresis loss
  b. eddy current loss
  c. both A and B
  d. magnetic saturation
  Answer: b. eddy current loss

• A battery:
  a. can deliver power only
  b. can absorb power only
  c. can absorb or deliver power depending upon the circuit to which it is connected
  d. can store power only
  Answer: c. can absorb or deliver power depending upon the circuit to which it is connected

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)
(d) 2 1 4 3

13. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to

(a) Accumulate vapours released
(b) Decrease pressure drop
(c) Regulate the flow
(d) Avoid deformation of tubes due to thermal expansion (Ans)

14. If the thermal conductivity of a material of wall varies as K₀(1 + at), then the temperature at the centre of the wall as compared to that in case of constant thermal conductivity will be

(a) More (Ans)
(b) Less
(c) Same
(d) Possible in all as above

15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

16. In the film established along a vertical plate during condensation of any vapour over the plates, the temperature distribution curve is

(a) Concave upwards (Ans)
(b) Concave downwards
(c) Parabolic
(d) Straight line

17. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, cavities are used advantageously when the entire surface is exposed to

(a) Nucleate boiling
(b) Film boiling (Ans)
(c) Transition boiling
(d) Pool boiling

18. For a fluid flowing over a flat plate, the Nusselt number at a point 1.25 m from the leading edge is 100. If the thermal conductivity of the fluid is 0.025 W/mK, the coefficient of convective heat transfer is

(a) 2000 W/m² K
(b) 2 W/m² K (Ans)
(c) 5 × 10⁻⁴ W/m² K
(d) 1.25 × 10⁻⁴ W/m² K

19. The unit of the following parameter is not m²/s:

(a) Thermal diffusivity
(b) Kinematic viscosity
(c) Mass diffusivity
(d) Dynamic viscosity (Ans)

20. Ice is very close to a

(a) Gray body (Ans)
(b) Black body
(c) White body
(d) Specular body

21. In a refrigeration plant, if the condenser temperature increases, the power input to the compressor will

(a) Increase (Ans)
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Be unpredictable

22. In gas cycle refrigeration systems, an expander replaces the throttle valve of a vapour compression system because

(a) The pressure drop obtained is not adequate
(b) The drop in temperature by throttling the gas is very small (Ans)
(c) It reduces the irreversibility in the system
(d) Heat loss is significantly decreased with the expander

23. In an aircraft refrigeration system, the pressure at the cooling turbine outlet is equal to

(a) Ambient pressure
(b) Cabin pressure (Ans)
(c) Compressor inlet pressure
(d) Evaporator pressure

24. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 120 kW, while the compressor of the system consumes power of 30 kW. The COP of the system will be

(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 3 (Ans)
(d) 4

25. Which of the following is not an essential component of a refrigeration system, where refrigeration effect is produced by the vaporization of refrigerant?

(a) Compressor
(b) Condenser
(c) Evaporator
(d) Expansion device (Ans)

26. If the specific humidity of moist air remains the same but its dry bulb temperature increases, its dew point temperature

(a) Remains the same (Ans)
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) May increase or decrease depending on its relative humidity

27. In an adiabatic saturation process of air

(a) The enthalpy remains constant (Ans)
(b) The temperature remains constant
(c) The absolute humidity remains constant
(d) The relative humidity remains constant

28. If air flows over a cooling coil, dehumidification of air will take place if the coil surface temperature is below the following of the entering air

(a) Wet bulb temperature
(b) Dry bulb temperature
(c) Dew point temperature (Ans)
(d) Adiabatic saturation temperature

29. In winter air-conditioning, the process is

(a) Heating, humidification, and cooling
(b) Heating, humidification, and heating (Ans)
(c) Heating, dehumidification, and heating
(d) Cooling, dehumidification, and heating

30. For a given dry bulb temperature, as the relative humidity decreases, the wet bulb temperature will

(a) Increase
(b) Decrease (Ans)
(c) Be the same
(d) Depend on other factors

Mechanical Engineering Objective Type Questions

Engineering Mechanics

1. The unit of force in S.I. unit is
   (a) kilogram
   (b) newton (Ans)
   (c) watt
   (d) dyne

2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. unit is
   (a) newton
   (b) pascal
   (c) kilogram metre
   (d) joule (Ans)

3. The unit of power in S.I. unit is
   (a) newton metre
   (b) watt (Ans)
   (c) joule
   (d) pascal per sec

4. Forces are called concurrent when their line
   (a) one point (Ans)
   (b) two points
   (c) one plane
   (d) different planes

5. A force is completely defined when we specify
   (a) magnitude
   (b) direction
   (c) point of application
   (d) all the above (Ans)

6. Which of the following is not the unit of distance?
   (a) angstrom
   (b) light year
   (c) micron
   (d) milestone (Ans)

7. Which of the following is not the unit of power?
   (a) kW (kilo watt)
   (b) hp (horse power)
   (c) k cal/sec
   (d) k cal/kg sec (Ans)

8. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy, and heat?
   (a) k cal
   (b) kg m (Ans)
   (c) kWh
   (d) hp

9. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure?
   (a) kg/cm²
   (b) ata
   (c) atmosphere
   (d) newton (Ans)

10. When trying to turn a key into a lock, the following is applied
    (a) coplanar force
    (b) non-coplanar force
    (c) lever
    (d) couple (Ans)

11. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
    (a) time
    (b) mass
    (c) volume
    (d) acceleration

12. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
    (a) energy
    (b) mass
    (c) momentum (Ans)
    (d) speed

13. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
    (a) weight (Ans)
    (b) velocity
    (c) force
    (d) moment

14. The unit of moment of inertia of an area is
    (a) kg m²
    (b) m⁴ (Ans)
    (c) kg/m²
    (d) m³

15. The unit of moment of inertia of mass is:
(a) kg m² (Ans)
(b) m⁴
(c) kg/m²
(d) m³

16. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?
(a) kgm
(b) watt (Ans)
(c) K cal
(d) kgm x (m/sec²)

17. Which of the following is an example of a lever of first order?
(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of clinical tongs
(d) all of the above (Ans)

18. A pair of Smith's tongs is an example of a lever of:
(a) zeroth order
(b) first order
(c) second order (Ans)
(d) third order

19. Tension in a string is maximum at:
(a) left support
(b) right support
(c) midway (Ans)
(d) quarter span

20. Which of the following is a unit of energy?
(a) joules
(b) N-m
(c) electron-volt
(d) all of the above (Ans)

21. The product of mass and velocity is known as:
(a) work
(b) moment
(c) impulse
(d) momentum (Ans)

22. For a machine to be self-locking, its efficiency should be:
(a) 100%
(b) >67%
(c) >50% (Ans)
(d) more than 50%

23. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of:
(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) linear momentum (Ans)
(d) angular momentum

24. Work is equal to:
(a) force x velocity
(b) force x time
(c) force x distance (Ans)
(d) mass x acceleration

25. One N is equal to:
(a) 10⁷ dyne (Ans)
(b) 10⁶ dyne
(c) 10⁴ dyne
(d) 10³ dyne

26. The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the:
(a) displacement
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration (Ans)
(d) impressed force

27. The units of momentum are the same as of:
(a) work
(b) energy
(c) force
(d) impulse (Ans)

SAIL Mechanical Engineering Placement Papers

1. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Fusion is the combination of heavy nuclei of elements resulting in the release of heat energy (Ans)
(b) Neutron bombardment is the most common and practiced method of initiation of reaction in fission materials
(c) When the multiplication factor is greater than 1, the chain reaction is uncontrollable
(d) The reactor produces α, β, γ, and neutron radiations; of all these, γ radiation is the most dangerous

2. The reflectivity in a reactor depends upon:
(a) Geometry of the reflector
(b) Energy of neutrons
(c) Properties of reflector
(d) All of these (Ans)

3. Shielding in a nuclear power plant is done:
(a) To protect against neutron and gamma rays (Ans)
(b) To absorb excess neutrons
(c) To slow down the speed of fast-moving neutrons
(d) To return the neutrons back into the core of the reactor

4. This substance has the minimum value of thermal conductivity:
(a) Air (Ans)
(b) Water
(c) Plastic
(d) Rubber

5. Dimensionless number is represented by:
(a) Biot number
(b) Fourier number (Ans)
(c) Euler number
(d) Gratez number

6. If the radius of any current-carrying conductor is less than the critical radius, then the addition of electrical insulation will enable the wire to carry a higher current because:
(a) The heat loss from the wire would decrease
(b) The heat loss from the wire would increase (Ans)
(c) The thermal resistance of the insulation is reduced
(d) The thermal resistance of the conductor is increased

7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I
(A) Number of Transfer Units
(B) Periodic flow heat exchangers
(C) Phase change
(D) Deposition on heat exchanger

List - II

1. Regenerators
2. Fouling factor
3. A measure of heat exchanger size
4. Condensers

Codes:
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)
(d) 2 1 4 3

8. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to:
(a) Accumulate vapours released
(b) Decrease pressure drop
(c) Regulate the flow (Ans)
(d) Avoid deformation of tubes due to thermal expansion

9. If the thermal conductivity of a material of wall varies as K₀ (1 + at), then the temperature at the centre of the wall as compared to that in case of constant thermal conductivity will be:
(a) More (Ans)
(b) Less
(c) Same
(d) Possible in all as above

10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I
(A) Stanton number
(B) Grashof number
(C) Peclet number
(D) Schmidt number

List - II

1. Natural convection
2. Mass transfer
3. Forced convection
4. Forced convection for small Pr. Number

Codes:
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

11. In the film established along a vertical plate during condensation of any vapor over the plates, the temperature distribution curve is:
(a) Concave upwards (Ans)
(b) Concave downwards
(c) Parabolic
(d) Straight line

12. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, cavities are used advantageously when the entire surface is exposed to:
(a) Nucleate boiling
(b) Film boiling (Ans)
(c) Transition boiling
(d) Pool boiling

13. For a fluid flowing over a flat plate, the Nusselt number at a point 1.25 m from the leading edge is 100. If the thermal conductivity of the fluid is 0.025 W/mK, the coefficient of convective heat transfer is:
(a) 2000 W/m² K
(b) 2 W/m² K (Ans)
(c) 5 * 10⁻⁴ W/m² K
(d) 1.25 * 10⁻⁴ W/m² K

14. The unit of the following parameter is not m²/s:
(a) Thermal diffusivity
(b) Kinematic viscosity
(c) Mass diffusivity
(d) Dynamic viscosity (Ans)

15. Ice is very close to a:
(a) Gray body (Ans)
(b) Black body
(c) White body
(d) Specular body

16. In a refrigeration plant, if the condenser temperature increases, the power input to the compressor will:
(a) Increase (Ans)
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Be unpredictable

17. In gas cycle refrigeration systems, an expander replaces the throttle valve of a vapor compression system because:
(a) The pressure drop obtained is not adequate
(b) The drop in temperature by throttling the gas is very small (Ans)
(c) It reduces the irreversibility in the system
(d) Heat loss is significantly decreased with the expander

18. In an aircraft refrigeration system, the pressure at the cooling turbine outlet is equal to:
(a) Ambient pressure
(b) Cabin pressure (Ans)
(c) Compressor inlet pressure
(d) Evaporator pressure

19. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 120 kW, while the compressor of the system consumes power of 30 kW. The COP of the system will be:
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 3 (Ans)
(d) 4

20. Which of the following is not an essential component of a refrigeration system where refrigeration effect is produced by the vaporization of refrigerant?
(a) Compressor
(b) Condenser
(c) Evaporator
(d) Expansion device (Ans)

21. If the specific humidity of moist air remains the same but its dry bulb temperature increases, its dew point temperature will:
(a) Remain the same (Ans)
(b) Increase
(c) Decrease
(d) May increase or decrease depending on its relative humidity

22. In an adiabatic saturation process of air:
(a) The enthalpy remains constant (Ans)
(b) The temperature remains constant
(c) The absolute humidity remains constant
(d) The relative humidity remains constant

23. If air flows over a cooling coil, dehumidification of air will take place if:
(a) The coil surface temperature is below the dew point temperature of air (Ans)
(b) The coil surface temperature is above the dew point temperature of air
(c) The air temperature is below the coil surface temperature
(d) The air temperature is above the coil surface temperature

24. The process of separating the water vapor from moist air is known as:
(a) Filtration
(b) Dew point
(c) Dehumidification (Ans)
(d) Condensation

25. An air conditioning system is said to be fully insulated if:
(a) The compressor is in a separate space from the evaporator
(b) There is no air leakage in the system (Ans)
(c) The unit is placed in the ambient air
(d) The condenser is separated from the evaporator

26. The properties of wet bulb temperature are related to:
(a) Humidity only
(b) Dry bulb temperature and humidity (Ans)
(c) Total heat only
(d) None of these

27. A refrigerator is more efficient at:
(a) Low ambient temperature (Ans)
(b) High ambient temperature
(c) Varying ambient temperature
(d) None of these

28. A cooling system has a COP of 3. The heat rejected from the system is 3000 kJ. The work done is:
(a) 9000 kJ
(b) 1000 kJ
(c) 3000 kJ (Ans)
(d) 900 kJ

29. A cold storage works on the principle of:
(a) Latent heat of vaporization (Ans)
(b) Sensible heat
(c) Thermal conductivity
(d) None of these

30. In air conditioning systems, the indoor unit is:
(a) Evaporator (Ans)
(b) Condenser
(c) Compressor
(d) Expansion valve

Technical Questions

8. Air is being forced by the bicycle pump into a tyre against a pressure of 4.5 bars. A slow downward movement of the piston can be approximated as:
(a) Isobaric process
(b) Adiabatic process
(c) Throttling process
(d) Isothermal process (Ans)

Explanation: An isothermal process occurs at constant temperature, and since the air is being compressed slowly, the temperature can be assumed to remain constant due to the heat exchange with the surroundings.

9. Isentropic flow is:
(a) Irreversible adiabatic flow
(b) Reversible adiabatic flow (Ans)
(c) Ideal fluid flow
(d) Frictionless reversible flow

Explanation: Isentropic flow is defined as a flow that is both adiabatic (no heat transfer) and reversible, meaning it maintains entropy.

10. Increase in entropy of a system represents:
(a) Increase in availability
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Decrease in pressure
(d) Degradation of energy (Ans)

Explanation: An increase in entropy indicates that energy is being transformed to a less useful form, representing degradation.

11. The value of ∮dQ/T for an irreversible cycle is:
(a) Equal to zero
(b) Greater than zero (Ans)
(c) Less than zero
(d) Unity

Explanation: The integral of heat transfer over temperature for an irreversible process is greater than zero due to the generation of entropy.

12. Lowest COP is of vapour:
(a) Compression cycle with superheated vapour
(b) Compression cycle with dry compression
(c) Compression cycle with wet compression
(d) Absorption cycle (Ans)

Explanation: The Coefficient of Performance (COP) is typically lowest for absorption cycles compared to compression cycles due to the energy losses involved.

13. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as:
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle (Ans)
(d) Rankine cycle

Explanation: The Atkinson cycle involves isochoric (constant volume) heat addition and isobaric (constant pressure) heat rejection.

14. The boundary layer separation occurs when:
(a) Pressure gradient is positive
(b) Pressure gradient is zero
(c) Pressure gradient is negative (Ans)
(d) None of the above

Explanation: Boundary layer separation occurs when the pressure gradient is negative, causing flow to detach from the surface.

15. For minimum work input in a two-stage compression process the intermediate pressure is the:
(a) Arithmetic mean of suction and discharge pressures
(b) Logarithmic mean of suction and discharge pressures
(c) Geometric mean of suction and discharge pressures (Ans)
(d) Hyperbolic mean of suction and discharge pressures

Explanation: The optimal intermediate pressure for minimum work in two-stage compression is the geometric mean of the suction and discharge pressures.

16. Air injection in IC engine refers to injection of:
(a) Air only
(b) Liquid fuel only
(c) Liquid fuel and air (Ans)
(d) Supercharging air

Explanation: Air injection typically refers to the simultaneous injection of air with the fuel to enhance combustion efficiency.

17. Supercharging is the process of:
(a) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere (Ans)
(b) Providing forced cooling air
(c) Injection of compressed air to remove combustion products fully
(d) Raising exhaust pressure

Explanation: Supercharging increases the air density in the intake system, allowing for more fuel to be burned and enhancing engine power.

18. Turbo prop-engine has the following additional feature over the turbojet:
(a) Propeller (Ans)
(b) Diffuser
(c) Starting engine
(d) Turbine and combustion chamber

Explanation: Turbo prop engines utilize a propeller to provide thrust in addition to the jet propulsion of turbojets.

19. In the SI engine, highest concentration of unburned hydrocarbon is observed during:
(a) Maximum load
(b) Acceleration (Ans)
(c) Deceleration
(d) Idling

Explanation: During acceleration, incomplete combustion can occur due to rapid throttle changes, leading to higher unburned hydrocarbons.

20. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Codes:
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)

Explanation: The rich mixture contributes to high hydrocarbon emissions, wall deposits lead to adverse emissions, tetraethyl lead elimination reduces NOx, and reduced compression ratios lead to increased emissions.

21. Pistons of Diesel engines are usually cooled by:
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Lubricating oil (Ans)
(d) Fuel oil

Explanation: Lubricating oil is commonly used for cooling Diesel engine pistons due to its thermal properties and lubrication function.

22. When a hydrocarbon fuel burns in excess air, Orsat analysis of products of combustion will show:
(a) CO, CO2 and N2 (Ans)
(b) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(c) CO2, N2, O2 and H2O
(d) CO2, N2 and O2

Explanation: In excess air conditions, combustion is more complete, leading to the presence of CO2 and N2, with less unburned fuel.

23. What will be the products of combustion shown by an Orsat analyzer when natural gas burns in deficit air?
(a) CO2, O2 and N2
(b) CO2, CO and N2 (Ans)
(c) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(d) CO2, CO, N2 and O2

Explanation: In deficit air conditions, incomplete combustion occurs, resulting in the production of CO alongside CO2.

24. The energy produced by 4.5 tons of high grade coal is equivalent to the energy produced by:
(a) 1 kg of Uranium
(b) 1 gram of Uranium (Ans)
(c) 100 grams of Uranium
(d) 10 grams of Uranium

Explanation: The energy density of uranium is significantly higher than that of coal, making even a small amount of uranium equivalent to a large quantity of coal.

25. Enriched Uranium is one in which:
(a) Percentage of U235 has been artificially increased (Ans)
(b) Percentage of U238 has been artificially increased
(c) Percentage of U234 has been artificially increased
(d) Extra energy is pumped from outside

Explanation: Enriched uranium typically refers to a higher concentration of U235, which is crucial for nuclear reactions.

General Awareness Questions

1. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Wheat
(b) Barley
(c) Jute (Ans)
(d) Rapeseed

Explanation: Jute is a kharif crop, while the others are grown in the rabi season.

2. Blue Revolution is associated with:
(a) Fish (Ans)
(b) Milk
(c) Flower
(d) Litmus

Explanation: The Blue Revolution refers to the increase in fish production through aquaculture.

3. Study the following features of farming in India:

1. The farmers voluntarily pool their land together for cultivation.
2. They divide the produce in proportion to the land pooled.
3. They forego their proprietary rights in the land.
4. They cannot withdraw their land from the pool after due notice and paying for the improvements.
   Which of these features belong to cooperative farming?
   (a) 1 and 2 (Ans)
   (b) 1 and 3
   (c) 2 and 4
   (d) 3 and 4

Explanation: Cooperative farming involves pooling resources and sharing profits based on contribution.

4. Which of the following states is the main producer of Tendu Leaves?
(a) Orissa
(b) Madhya Pradesh (Ans)
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Madhya Pradesh is known for its significant production of Tendu leaves.

5. The largest food crop of India is:
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice (Ans)
(c) Maize
(d) Gram

Explanation: Rice is the staple food and the largest food crop produced in India.

6. The maximum edible oil in India is produced from:
(a) Rapeseed and mustard
(b) Til
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut (Ans)

Explanation: Groundnut is the leading source of edible oil in India.

7. The best wheat-producing state in India is:
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh (Ans)

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh is the largest wheat-producing state in India.

8. Which one of the following is not a cash crop?
(a) Cotton
(b) Coffee
(c) Wheat (Ans)
(d) Tea

Explanation: Wheat is primarily a food crop, while the others are cash crops.

9. Which of the following is the best season for growing rice?
(a) Kharif season (Ans)
(b) Rabi season
(c) Zaid season
(d) All of these

Explanation: Rice is predominantly grown during the Kharif season due to its water requirements.

10. Which of the following is known as the 'Queen of Spices'?
(a) Cardamom (Ans)
(b) Pepper
(c) Cloves
(d) Ginger

Explanation: Cardamom is often referred to as the 'Queen of Spices' for its flavor and aroma.

11. Which of the following is a leguminous crop?
(a) Barley
(b) Gram (Ans)
(c) Mustard
(d) Rice

Explanation: Gram is a leguminous crop, which means it belongs to the legume family.

12. The 'Tropic of Cancer' does not pass through:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Odisha (Ans)

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh but not Odisha.

13. The second Green Revolution aims at:
(a) Increasing wheat production
(b) Increasing rice production
(c) Increasing agricultural productivity (Ans)
(d) Increasing sugarcane production

Explanation: The second Green Revolution focuses on enhancing overall agricultural productivity, not limited to specific crops.

14. Which of the following is not a major oilseed in India?
(a) Soybean
(b) Cottonseed
(c) Mustard
(d) Rice (Ans)

Explanation: Rice is not classified as an oilseed, while the others are significant oilseed crops in India.

15. Which one of the following is not a mineral fertilizer?
(a) Potash
(b) Urea
(c) NPK (Ans)
(d) Gypsum

Explanation: Gypsum is not considered a mineral fertilizer, while the others are.

16. What is the main reason for India’s low agricultural productivity?
(a) Poor quality of land
(b) Irrigation
(c) Use of fertilizers and pesticides
(d) Monsoon dependency (Ans)

Explanation: India's agricultural productivity is heavily reliant on monsoon rains, making it vulnerable to climatic variations.

17. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Cauliflower - Kharif
(b) Tomato - Rabi
(c) Onion - Zaid
(d) Potato - Rabi (Ans)

Explanation: Potatoes are predominantly grown in the Rabi season.

18. The main purpose of agriculture in India is:
(a) Subsistence (Ans)
(b) Commercial
(c) Industrial
(d) None of these

Explanation: Agriculture in India primarily serves subsistence needs.

19. The maximum production of sugarcane in India is from:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh (Ans)
(c) Punjab
(d) Karnataka

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of sugarcane in India.

20. Which of the following is a kharif crop?
(a) Barley
(b) Mustard
(c) Rice (Ans)
(d) Wheat

Explanation: Rice is classified as a kharif crop, which is sown in the rainy season.

21. The 'Bhakra Nangal' project is constructed on:
(a) Ravi river
(b) Beas river (Ans)
(c) Chenab river
(d) Yamuna river

Explanation: The Bhakra Nangal project is built on the Sutlej River.

22. What is the main source of sugar in India?
(a) Sugarcane (Ans)
(b) Sugar beet
(c) Sweet potato
(d) Corn

Explanation: Sugarcane is the primary source of sugar production in India.

23. Which of the following is a cereal crop?
(a) Rice (Ans)
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Cotton
(d) Soybean

Explanation: Rice is a cereal crop, while the others are not.

24. The 'Kharif' season starts with the onset of:
(a) North-East monsoon
(b) South-West monsoon (Ans)
(c) Winter season
(d) None of these

Explanation: The Kharif season begins with the South-West monsoon rains.

25. Which of the following is the main cash crop of India?
(a) Rice
(b) Cotton (Ans)
(c) Wheat
(d) Sugarcane

Explanation: Cotton is considered the primary cash crop in India.

21. Which one of the following is not a part of the green revolution strategy?
(a) Irrigation
(b) Fertilizer
(c) High yielding varieties of seeds
(d) Crop insurance
Ans: (d)
Explanation: The Green Revolution primarily focused on improving agricultural productivity through the use of high-yielding varieties of seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation techniques. Crop insurance, while beneficial for farmers, is not a direct part of the Green Revolution strategy.

22. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Linseed
(d) Barley
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Rabi crops are sown in winter and harvested in spring. Wheat, linseed, and barley are all rabi crops, whereas rice is a kharif crop, typically sown with the onset of the monsoon.

23. Which of the following states ranks first in the production of cotton in the country?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) West Bengal
(c) Punjab
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Gujarat is the leading state in cotton production in India, contributing significantly to the country's overall cotton yield due to its favorable climate and extensive cultivation practices.

24. In India, the greatest variety of flowers is found in
(a) Assam
(b) Kerala
(c) U.P. hills
(d) Sikkim
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Sikkim, with its diverse climatic conditions and rich biodiversity, supports a vast variety of flowers, making it one of the richest regions for floral diversity in India.

25. Bangladesh has become a leading competitor of India in the world in the field of
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) tea
(d) rice
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Bangladesh is one of the world's largest producers of jute, often competing with India in this sector, given its favorable climate and agricultural practices tailored for jute cultivation.

26. Which of the following is the largest livestock (in number) in India?
(a) Sheep
(b) Goats
(c) Buffaloes
(d) Horses and Ponies
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Goats are the most numerous livestock in India, known for their adaptability to various climatic conditions and their contribution to the rural economy.

27. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?

1. It is largely practised in Assam
2. It is referred to as “slash and burn” technique
3. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 1 and 3
   Ans: (a)
   Explanation: Jhum cultivation, also known as shifting cultivation, is prevalent in Assam and involves slash-and-burn techniques, leading to soil fertility depletion over a few years.

28. The most widely consumed cereal in India is
(a) barley
(b) wheat
(c) rice
(d) sorghum
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Rice is the staple food for a large portion of the Indian population and is the most widely consumed cereal grain in the country.

29. Terrace farming is widely practised in
(a) Malabar coast
(b) Mountain areas
(c) Deserts
(d) Deccan plateau
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Terrace farming is commonly practiced in mountainous regions to prevent soil erosion and maximize arable land by creating flat surfaces on slopes.

30. Which of the following oilseed crops is grown most extensively in India?
(a) Mustard
(b) Linseed
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Groundnut (peanut) is the most extensively grown oilseed crop in India, due to its high oil content and economic importance in the country's agricultural sector.

31. Which of the following canals is not used for irrigation?
(a) Indira Gandhi Canal
(b) Buckingham Canal
(c) Western Yamuna Canal
(d) Upper Ganga Canal
Ans: (b)
Explanation: The Buckingham Canal is primarily a navigation canal and not primarily used for irrigation, unlike the other options that serve irrigation purposes.

32. In India, what percentage of area is covered by wheat growing regions?
(a) 10%
(b) 13.5%
(c) 17.8%
(d) 19.5%
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Wheat is grown in approximately 13.5% of the total agricultural area in India, making it one of the significant crops in the country.

33. The density of cattle population per 100 hectares of gross cropped area is the highest in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Haryana
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Haryana has the highest density of cattle population per unit area, attributed to its rich agricultural practices and livestock rearing.

34. The maximum density of canals lies in which of the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has the maximum density of canals used for irrigation, significantly contributing to its agricultural productivity.

35. Kerala is famous for the cultivation of

1. Coconut
2. Black pepper
3. Rubber
4. Groundnut
   (a) 1, 2 and 4
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1 and 4
   (d) 1, 2 and 3
   Ans: (d)
   Explanation: Kerala is renowned for its cultivation of coconut, black pepper, and rubber, which are significant contributors to its agricultural economy.

General Knowledge Questions

Q.17) The third Sangam was held at:
(A) Arrikkamedu
(B) Ernakulam
(C) Madurai
(D) Tuticorin
Answer: (C) Madurai
Explanation: The third Sangam, a Tamil literary assembly, is believed to have taken place in Madurai. It was one of the most significant literary gatherings that produced notable works in Tamil literature.

Q.18) Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Satya Shodhak Samaj’?
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Jyotiba Phule
(C) Narayan Guru
(D) Ramaswamy Naicker
Answer: (B) Jyotiba Phule
Explanation: Jyotiba Phule founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj in 1873 to promote social reforms, especially for the upliftment of the lower castes and women's rights.

Q.19) Cotton for textile was first cultivated in:
(A) Egypt
(B) Mesopotamia
(C) Central America
(D) India
Answer: (D) India
Explanation: India is one of the earliest regions where cotton was cultivated and used for textile production, dating back thousands of years.

Q.20) Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Muhammad Tughlaq’s scheme of token currency was a failure.
Reason (R): Muhammad Tughlaq had no proper control over the issuance of coins.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Tughlaq’s introduction of token currency led to inflation and misuse due to lack of control, causing the scheme to fail.

Q.21) By which name was Chanakya known in his childhood?
(A) Ajaya
(B) Chanakya
(C) Vishnugupta
(D) Deogupta
Answer: (C) Vishnugupta
Explanation: Chanakya, the ancient Indian philosopher and economist, was known as Vishnugupta during his childhood.

Q.22) Rock cut architecture in Harappan culture context has been found at:
(A) Kalibangan
(B) Dhaulabira
(C) Kotdiji
(D) Amri
Answer: (B) Dhaulabira
Explanation: Dhaulabira is noted for its rock-cut architecture that reflects the advanced engineering skills of the Harappan civilization.

Q.23) Where was the first Madarsa set up by the British in India?
(A) Madras
(B) Bombay
(C) Aligarh
(D) Calcutta
Answer: (D) Calcutta
Explanation: The first Madarsa established by the British in India was in Calcutta in 1781, aimed at educating Muslim students.

Q.24) Who among the following Pakistanis was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian Government?
(A) Liaqat Ali Khan
(B) M.A. Jinnah
(C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(D) Muhammad Iqbal
Answer: (C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Explanation: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, known as the "Frontier Gandhi," was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1987 for his contributions to the freedom movement and non-violence.

Q.25) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Codes:
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2
Explanation:

• Lachchu Maharaj is associated with Kathak (3).
• Fayyaz Khan is associated with Dhrupad (1).
• Sidheshwari Devi is associated with Thumri (4).
• Talat Mehmood is associated with Ghazal (2).

SAIL Placement Paper, Technical Questions

1) What is the main difference between distribution transformer and power transformer?
Answer: The main difference lies in their usage and design. Distribution transformers are used for distributing electricity to consumers, usually at lower voltages, while power transformers are used in transmission networks to step up or step down voltage levels at higher capacities.

2) Where is the manning formula used?
Answer: The Manning formula is used in open channel flow to calculate the velocity of water flow based on channel shape, roughness, and slope.

3) What is the difference between item category and material type?
Answer: Item category classifies materials based on their use and nature, while material type defines specific characteristics such as pricing and valuation in inventory management.

4) When a square wave is applied to the primary of a transformer, what will be the output waveform of the secondary?
Answer: The output waveform of the secondary will be a square wave as well, assuming the transformer is ideal and there are no losses.

5) What are warehouse research and the process of warehouse research?
Answer: Warehouse research involves studying inventory management, storage practices, and operational efficiencies. The process includes data collection, analysis of current practices, and recommendations for optimization.

6) What is the rating of HT and LT substations?
Answer: High Tension (HT) substations typically handle voltage levels above 33 kV, while Low Tension (LT) substations handle voltage levels below 1 kV.

7) Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Godavari
(D) Tapti
Answer: (D) Tapti
Explanation: The Tapti River does not form a delta at its mouth because it drains directly into the Arabian Sea, where it lacks sufficient sediment deposition to create a delta.

8) How much is the minimum marks for the CIVIL judge interview in MPPSC?
Answer: The minimum qualifying marks for the CIVIL judge interview may vary by year, but it typically ranges between 40-50%.

9) What are the uses of graphite electrodes in various fields?
Answer: Graphite electrodes are widely used in electric arc furnaces for steel production, in batteries, as lubricants, and in various high-temperature applications due to their excellent conductivity and thermal resistance.

10) What is the use of the "fg" command?
Answer: The "fg" command is used in Unix/Linux operating systems to bring a background job to the foreground, allowing the user to interact with it directly.

11) What are %TYPE and %ROWTYPE? What is the difference?
Answer: %TYPE is used to declare a variable with the same datatype as a specified column in a table, while %ROWTYPE is used to declare a record variable that represents a row of data from a table, containing fields that correspond to the table's columns.

12) Where does a body have the least weight?
(A) at the equator
(B) at the poles
(C) at the earth's center
(D) none of these
Answer: (A) at the equator
Explanation: A body has the least weight at the equator due to the centrifugal force caused by the Earth's rotation, which counteracts gravitational force.

13) What is Millman's theorem?
Answer: Millman's theorem states that the voltage at a point in a circuit is the weighted average of the voltages of the various sources, inversely proportional to their respective resistances.

14) What happens if a DC motor is fed an AC signal?
Answer: Feeding an AC signal to a DC motor can cause it to operate inefficiently, generate excessive heat, and potentially damage the motor due to the alternating current reversing the direction of current flow.

15) Calculate electron mobility.
Answer: Electron mobility can be calculated using the formula:
$\mu = \frac{v_d}{E}$
where $\mu$ is the mobility, $v_d$ is the drift velocity, and $E$ is the electric field strength.

16) Is a power MOSFET voltage controlled or current controlled?
Answer: A power MOSFET is voltage controlled, meaning that the gate voltage controls the conductivity between the drain and source terminals.

17) If you want a 640 k RAM, what specification should you specify in the drive?
Answer: You should specify a drive with a capacity of at least 640 kB (kilobytes) for a 640 k RAM requirement.

18) In computing, what is the difference between a cookie and a session?
Answer: Cookies are small pieces of data stored on the client side, used to remember user information, while sessions store data on the server side, allowing for temporary data storage across multiple requests from the same user.

General Awareness Questions

1. Q.16) Who was the founder of ‘Servants of India Society’?
   (A) Madan Mohan Malviya
   (B) Sarojini Naidu
   (C) Justice Ranade
   (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
   Answer: (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
   Explanation: Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to promote social reform and education in India.

2. Q.17) The third Sangam was held at:
   (A) Arrikkamedu
   (B) Ernakulam
   (C) Madurai
   (D) Tuticorin
   Answer: (C) Madurai
   Explanation: The third Sangam, one of the ancient Tamil assemblies, was held in Madurai, which was an important cultural and political center in ancient Tamil Nadu.

3. Q.18) Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Satya Shodhak Samaj’?
   (A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
   (B) Jyotiba Phule
   (C) Narayan Guru
   (D) Ramaswamy Naicker
   Answer: (B) Jyotiba Phule
   Explanation: Jyotiba Phule founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj in 1873 to promote social equality and fight against the caste system.

4. Q.19) Cotton for textile was first cultivated in:
   (A) Egypt
   (B) Mesopotamia
   (C) Central America
   (D) India
   Answer: (D) India
   Explanation: Evidence suggests that cotton was first cultivated in India around 5000 BC, making it one of the oldest known textiles.

5. Q.20) Consider the following statements:
   Assertion (A): Muhammad Tughlaq’s scheme of token currency was a failure.
   Reason (R): Muhammad Tughlaq had no proper control over the issuance of coins.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
   (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
   (C) A is true but R is false.
   (D) A is false but R is true.
   Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
   Explanation: The token currency introduced by Muhammad Tughlaq in the 14th century failed due to rampant counterfeiting and lack of control over its issuance.

6. Q.21) By which name was Chanakya known in his childhood?
   (A) Ajaya
   (B) Chanakya
   (C) Vishnugupta
   (D) Deogupta
   Answer: (C) Vishnugupta
   Explanation: Chanakya, the ancient Indian philosopher and economist, was known as Vishnugupta in his childhood.

7. Q.22) Rock cut architecture in Harappan culture context has been found at:
   (A) Kalibangan
   (B) Dhaulabira
   (C) Kotdiji
   (D) Amri
   Answer: (B) Dhaulabira
   Explanation: Dhaulabira is known for its rock-cut architecture, which is linked to the Harappan culture, particularly in the context of fortifications.

8. Q.23) Where was the first Madarsa set up by the British in India?
   (A) Madras
   (B) Bombay
   (C) Aligarh
   (D) Calcutta
   Answer: (D) Calcutta
   Explanation: The first Madarsa established by the British in India was in Calcutta (now Kolkata) in 1780, primarily to promote Islamic education.

9. Q.24) Who among the following Pakistani nationals was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian Government?
   (A) Liaqat Ali Khan
   (B) M.A. Jinnah
   (C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
   (D) Muhammad Iqbal
   Answer: (C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
   Explanation: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, known as the 'Frontier Gandhi', was awarded the Bharat Ratna in recognition of his contributions to India’s freedom struggle.

10. Q.25) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
    List-I
    (a) Lachchu Maharaj
    (b) Fayyaz Khan
    (c) Sidheshwari Devi
    (d) Talat Mehmood

List-II
(1) Dhrupad
(2) Ghazal
(3) Kathak
(4) Thumri

Codes:
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2
Explanation: Lachchu Maharaj is associated with Kathak, Fayyaz Khan is known for Dhrupad, Sidheshwari Devi is famous for Thumri, and Talat Mehmood is recognized for Ghazal.

SAIL Aptitude Questions with Answers

1. Q.1) Resistance is measured in:
   (A) Henries
   (B) Ohms
   (C) Hertz
   (D) Watts
   Answer: (B) Ohms
   Explanation: Resistance is the measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit and is measured in ohms.

2. Q.2) A sine wave voltage is applied across an inductor. When the frequency of the voltage is decreased, the current:
   (A) is increased
   (B) is decreased
   (C) does not change
   (D) momentarily goes to zero
   Answer: (A) is increased
   Explanation: As the frequency decreases, the inductive reactance decreases, leading to an increase in current.

3. Q.3) The winding resistance of a coil can be increased by:
   (A) increasing the number of turns
   (B) using a thinner wire
   (C) changing the core material
   (D) increasing the number of turns or using thinner wire
   Answer: (D) increasing the number of turns or using thinner wire
   Explanation: Both increasing the number of turns and using a thinner wire can lead to a higher winding resistance.

4. Q.4) When the current through an inductor is cut in half, the amount of energy stored in the electromagnetic field:
   (A) is halved
   (B) quadruples
   (C) doubles
   (D) does not change
   Answer: (A) is halved
   Explanation: The energy stored in an inductor is proportional to the square of the current, so halving the current results in halving the energy.

5. Q.5) In the complex plane, the number 14 – j5 is located in the:
   (A) first quadrant
   (B) second quadrant
   (C) third quadrant
   (D) fourth quadrant
   Answer: (D) fourth quadrant
   Explanation: In the complex plane, the real part (14) is positive and the imaginary part (-5) is negative, placing it in the fourth quadrant.

6. Q.6) When the frequency of the source voltage decreases, the impedance of a parallel RC circuit:
   (A) Increases
   (B) Decreases
   (C) Does not change
   (D) Does not change
   Answer: (A) Increases
   Explanation: The impedance of the circuit increases as frequency decreases due to the effect of the capacitor.

7. Q.7) In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by:
   (A) 45°
   (B) 90°
   (C) 120°
   (D) 180°
   Answer: (C) 120°
   Explanation: In a three-phase system, the three voltages are separated by 120 degrees.

8. Q.8) A constant load power means a uniform conversion of:
   (A) mechanical to electrical energy
   (B) electrical to mechanical energy
   (C) current to voltage
   (D) voltage to current
   Answer: (B) electrical to mechanical energy
   Explanation: Constant load power refers to the steady conversion of electrical energy into mechanical energy.

9. Q.9) Polyphase generators produce simultaneous multiple sinusoidal voltages that are separated by:
   (A) certain constant phase angles
   (B) certain constant frequencies
   (C) certain constant voltages
   (D) certain constant currents
   Answer: (A) certain constant phase angles
   Explanation: Polyphase generators, like three-phase generators, produce voltages that are out of phase with each other by constant angles.

10. Q.10) The reactance of a capacitor at a given frequency is:
    (A) Directly proportional to frequency
    (B) Inversely proportional to frequency
    (C) Independent of frequency
    (D) Zero at high frequencies
    Answer: (B) Inversely proportional to frequency
    Explanation: The reactance of a capacitor decreases as frequency increases, making it inversely proportional.

Electrical Engineering Questions

1. The material used for fuse must have
   Answer: a) low melting point and low specific resistance
   Options:

   • a) low melting point and low specific resistance
   • b) high melting point and low specific resistance
   • c) low melting point and high specific resistance
   • d) high melting point and high specific resistance

2. If a piece of metal wire is stretched, its resistance will increase.
   Answer: a) True
   Options:

   • a) True
   • b) False

3. The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is ______ ohm.
   Answer: a) 75
   Options:

   • a) 75
   • b) 50
   • c) 100
   • d) 25

4. In mesh analysis of a network, all the mesh currents must necessarily be either clock-wise or anti-clockwise.
   Answer: a) True
   Options:

   • a) True
   • b) False

5. The purpose of introducing a reactor in the ignition circuit of mercury are rectifier is to limit the
   Answer: c) current in the circuit
   Options:

   • a) voltage in the circuit
   • b) energy in the circuit
   • c) current in the circuit
   • d) power in the circuit

6. An uncharged capacitor is connected across a charged one. There will flow an impulsive current through the circuit.
   Answer: a) True
   Options:

   • a) True
   • b) False

7. In the case of a lossy capacitor, series equivalent resistance value will be
   Answer: b) large
   Options:

   • a) small
   • b) large

8. Time constant of an R-C circuit increases if the value of resistance is
   Answer: b) increased
   Options:

   • a) decreased
   • b) increased

9. If R, L and C denote resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively, the quantity RC has the same dimensions as that of R/L.
   Answer: b) False
   Options:

   • a) True
   • b) False

10. If R, L and C denote resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively, then the quantity CR² has the dimensions of L.
    Answer: a) True
    Options:

    • a) True
    • b) False

11. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a
    Answer: a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
    Options:

    • a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
    • b) resistor in series with contacts
    • c) inductor in parallel with contacts
    • d) fuse in series with contacts

12. A battery will not cause any current to flow when it is connected across a pure capacitor, in the steady state even if the capacitor value varies with time.
    Answer: a) True
    Options:

    • a) True
    • b) False

13. Voltage stress is maximum in a cable at the surface of the
    Answer: c) conductor
    Options:

    • a) insulator
    • b) core
    • c) conductor
    • d) sheath

14. When two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in series, the effective capacitance is C1 + C2.
    Answer: b) False
    Options:

    • a) True
    • b) False

15. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
    Answer: a) resistance
    Options:

    • a) resistance
    • b) capacitance
    • c) inductance
    • d) impedance

16. The flux linked with a coil of inductance l carrying a current i is
    Answer: b) False
    Options:

    • a) directly proportional to i
    • b) False
    • c) inversely proportional to i
    • d) none of the above

17. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
    Answer: a) mutual inductance and self-inductances of the two coils
    Options:

    • a) mutual inductance and self-inductances of the two coils
    • b) only mutual inductance
    • c) only self-inductance
    • d) neither

18. The location of a lightning arrestor is
    Answer: b) near the transformer
    Options:

    • a) at the load end
    • b) near the transformer
    • c) at the substation
    • d) at the generator

19. A conductor of length 1 meter moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 Wb/m² with a velocity of 25 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be
    Answer: b) 25 volts
    Options:

    • a) 1 volt
    • b) 25 volts
    • c) 50 volts
    • d) 100 volts

20. In electrical machines, laminated cores are used with a view to reducing
    Answer: a) eddy current loss
    Options:

    • a) eddy current loss
    • b) hysteresis loss
    • c) copper loss
    • d) none of these

21. A battery
    Answer: d) can absorb or deliver power depending upon the circuit to which it is connected
    Options:

    • a) can only deliver power
    • b) can only absorb power
    • c) is a perfect power source
    • d) can absorb or deliver power depending upon the circuit to which it is connected

22. When one wants to connect two batteries in parallel to draw larger current than what can be supplied by one battery, it suffices to ensure that their e.m.f.s are equal.
    Answer: a) True
    Options:

    • a) True
    • b) False

23. An ideal battery can supply infinite current
    Answer: b) False
    Options:

    • a) True
    • b) False

24. Decibel is a
    Answer: c) ratio of power
    Options:

    • a) fixed unit of power
    • b) logarithmic unit of voltage
    • c) ratio of power
    • d) dimensionless quantity

25. dBm is a
    Answer: b) unit of power
    Options:

    • a) unit of voltage
    • b) unit of power
    • c) unit of resistance
    • d) unit of capacitance

26. Decibel is a unit of
    Answer: c) power ratio
    Options:

    • a) voltage ratio
    • b) energy ratio
    • c) power ratio
    • d) frequency ratio

27. The absolute unit of resistance is of the dimension of
    Answer: d) none of these
    Options:

    • a) velocity
    • b) length
    • c) acceleration
    • d) none of these

28. The absolute unit of inductance is of the dimension of
    Answer: b) length
    Options:

    • a) mass
    • b) length
    • c) time
    • d) area

Technical Questions

1. Electrostatic potential is a Scalar Quantity or Vector Quantity?
   Answer: Scalar Quantity
   Explanation: Electrostatic potential is defined as the amount of work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to a point in an electric field without acceleration. Since it only has magnitude and no direction, it is a scalar quantity.

2. Among values 1 to 100, what is the probability of occurrence of numbers ending with 9?
   Options:
   a) 1/10
   b) 9/10
   c) 1
   d) 0
   Answer: a) 1/10
   Explanation: The numbers ending with 9 from 1 to 100 are 9, 19, 29, 39, 49, 59, 69, 79, 89, and 99 (a total of 10 numbers). The probability is thus $\frac{10}{100} = \frac{1}{10}$.

3. Si, Ge lie in ……..block of the periodic table
   Options:
   a) III
   b) V
   c) IVA
   d) IV B
   Answer: c) IVA
   Explanation: Silicon (Si) and Germanium (Ge) are in group 14 (IVA) of the periodic table.

4. Some equation was given $x=20 \sin 157t$, then calculate frequency.
   Answer:
   The equation $x = 20 \sin(157t)$ has the form $A \sin(\omega t)$, where $\omega = 157$. The frequency $f$ is given by $f = \frac{\omega}{2\pi}$.
   $f = \frac{157}{2\pi} \approx 25.0 \, \text{Hz}$.

5. Which filter is used for passing only high frequency?
   Options:
   a) Ladder
   b) Crystal
   Answer: a) Ladder
   Explanation: A ladder filter is often used to pass high-frequency signals while attenuating lower frequencies.

6. In Zener breakdown, it is proportional to:
   Answer: Negative coefficient of temperature
   Explanation: In Zener diodes, the breakdown voltage decreases with an increase in temperature, indicating a negative temperature coefficient.

7. If water is heated from 0 degrees to 10 degrees, what effect is on volume?
   Options:
   a) Increase steadily
   b) Remain the same
   c) Decrease steadily
   Answer: a) Increase steadily
   Explanation: Generally, water expands as it is heated, leading to an increase in volume.

8. If we dig from the North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it, what effect on its velocity?
   Options:
   a) Increase continuously
   b) First increase and become zero in the center
   c) It will start oscillating
   Answer: b) First increase and become zero in the center
   Explanation: As the stone falls towards the center of the Earth, it accelerates due to gravity, reaching maximum speed at the center, where gravitational pull is zero, leading to zero velocity at that point.

9. Dandi March was related to ……..
   Options:
   a) Salt
   b) Sugar
   Answer: a) Salt
   Explanation: The Dandi March was a pivotal event in the Indian independence movement led by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the British salt tax.

10. Radiation pattern of a loop antenna
    Options:
    a) Cardioid
    b) Semicircular
    c) Circle
    d) None
    Answer: a) Cardioid
    Explanation: Loop antennas typically exhibit a cardioid radiation pattern.

General Knowledge Questions

11. "DENMARK" lies in which continent?
    Answer: Europe
    Explanation: Denmark is a Scandinavian country located in Northern Europe.

12. Cooks Island is situated in which continent?
    Answer: Oceania
    Explanation: The Cook Islands are located in the South Pacific Ocean and are part of the region known as Oceania.

13. Range of AM Signal?
    Answer:
    AM (Amplitude Modulation) signals can typically range from about 530 kHz to 1700 kHz in the medium wave band, depending on regulations in various countries.

14. In an electrolyte, if a rod is immersed, then the mass on the rod will be proportional to:
    Answer: Current passed in it
    Explanation: According to Faraday's laws of electrolysis, the amount of substance deposited on an electrode is directly proportional to the current passed.

15. Largest unit of energy?
    Answer: Joule (J) or Megajoule (MJ)
    Explanation: The joule is the SI unit of energy, but larger units like the megajoule (1 MJ = 1,000,000 J) are often used for larger amounts.

16. Spelling check of SATELLITE
    Answer: Correct
    Explanation: "Satellite" is the correct spelling.

17. Plural of "DIBIYA" in Hindi?
    Answer:
    The plural form would typically be "DIBIYAN" (डिबियान) in Hindi.

18. Find out Sarvnam
    Answer:
    "Sarvnam" in Hindi refers to pronouns. Examples include "मैं" (I), "तू" (you), "वह" (he/she).

19. RADDISH is a:
    Options:
    a) Modified root
    b) Bulb
    c) Stem
    Answer: a) Modified root
    Explanation: Radish is classified as a modified root that stores food.

20. X Rays are ……. Rays
    Answer: Electromagnetic Rays
    Explanation: X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation.

21. ass:bray::sheep:
    Answer: bleat
    Explanation: This analogy compares the sound made by an animal (ass: bray) to the sound made by a sheep (sheep: bleat).

Aptitude Questions

1. Where does a body have the least weight?
   Options:
   a) At the equator
   b) At the poles
   c) At Earth’s center
   d) None of these
   Answer: c) At Earth’s center
   Explanation: At the Earth's center, gravitational forces from all directions cancel each other out, resulting in zero weight.

2. What is Millman's theorem?
   Answer:
   Millman's theorem is used in electrical engineering to simplify the analysis of circuits with multiple voltage sources and resistors.

3. What happens if a DC motor is fed an AC signal?
   Answer:
   The motor may not function properly, as DC motors are designed to run on direct current. Feeding an AC signal may cause overheating, vibration, and eventual damage.

4. Calculate electron mobility.
   Answer:
   Electron mobility can be calculated using the formula $\mu = \frac{I}{nqE}$, where $I$ is the current, $n$ is the charge carrier density, $q$ is the charge of an electron, and $E$ is the electric field.

5. Power MOSFET is voltage controlled or current controlled?
   Answer:
   Power MOSFETs are voltage-controlled devices.

6. If you want a 640 k RAM, what specification should you specify in the drive?
   Answer:
   You would specify a drive that supports a 640 KB memory size.

7. Max efficiency of a Class A amplifier?
   Answer:
   The maximum efficiency of a Class A amplifier is 25% to 30%.

8. What are resistors in IC made of?
   Answer:
   Resistors in integrated circuits (ICs) are typically made from thin layers of polysilicon or diffusion of impurities into silicon.

9. 6 girls and 6 boys sitting randomly in a line. What is the probability of girls being together?
   Answer:
   This can be solved using combinatorial methods. The total arrangements with girls together can be calculated as a single unit.

10. What is the probability of two friends having birthdays in the same month?
    Answer:
    Assuming uniform distribution, the probability is $\frac{1}{12}$.

11. $(D^2 + 4)y = kx$, what is PI?
    Answer:
    PI (Principal Integral) would require boundary conditions for the solution.

12. lim $x \to \infty$ $\frac{\sin x}{x}$
    Answer:
    The limit evaluates to 0.

13. Express $\frac{x}{x+1}$ as Taylor’s series.
    Answer:
    The Taylor series expansion about $x=0$ can be derived as $x - x^2 + x^3 - x^4 + \ldots$.

14. $e^{ix} = ...$
    Answer:
    According to Euler's formula, $e^{ix} = \cos(x) + i\sin(x)$.

15. What is the resultant of two equal vectors?
    Answer:
    The resultant of two equal vectors is equal to the vector itself when they are in the same direction, or zero when they are in opposite directions.

Electronics Questions

8. Pure metals generally have:

   • (A) High conductivity and low temperature coefficient
   • (B) High conductivity and large temperature coefficient
   • (C) Low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
   • (D) Low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
     Answer: (A) High conductivity and low temperature coefficient
     Explanation: Pure metals are excellent conductors of electricity and have a low temperature coefficient, meaning their resistance changes little with temperature.

9. The number of LED displays in duration in a logic probe are?

   • (A) 1
   • (B) 2
   • (C) 4
   • (D) 1 or 2
     Answer: (B) 2
     Explanation: Most logic probes use two LED displays to indicate high and low logic states.

10. Which of these are two-state devices?

    • (A) Lamp
    • (B) Magnetic tape
    • (C) Punched card
    • (D) All the above
      Answer: (D) All the above
      Explanation: Each of these can represent two states (on/off, stored/erased).

11. A current transducer responds to:

    • (A) Steady current only
    • (B) Pulsating current only
    • (C) Both pulsating and steady
    • (D) None of these
      Answer: (B) Pulsating current only
      Explanation: Current transducers typically respond better to pulsating currents, as they often rely on varying magnetic fields.

12. Logic analyzer is:

    • (A) A multi-channel oscilloscope
    • (B) Similar to logic pulser
    • (C) Similar to current tracer
    • (D) None of the above
      Answer: (A) A multi-channel oscilloscope
      Explanation: A logic analyzer captures and analyzes multiple digital signals over time, much like an oscilloscope.

13. The output impedance of a logic pulser is:

    • (A) Low
    • (B) High
    • (C) May be low or high
    • (D) Can't say
      Answer: (A) Low
      Explanation: Logic pulsers typically have low output impedance to drive loads effectively.

14. Current $I_0$ in the given circuit will be:

    • (A) 10 A
    • (B) 3.33 A
    • (C) 20 A
    • (D) 2.5 A
      Answer: (B) 3.33 A
      Explanation: Based on the circuit configuration and calculations, the current divides in specific ratios.

15. In the given circuit, if voltage $V$ is reduced to half, the current will become:

    • (A) $I/2$
    • (B) $2I$
    • (C) $1.5I$
    • (D) $I / \sqrt{R_2 + (X_L + X_C)^2}$
      Answer: (A) $I/2$
      Explanation: According to Ohm's Law, reducing voltage by half while resistance remains constant halves the current.

16. The function $\frac{3s}{(s + 1)(s + 2)}$ has:

    • (A) One zero, two poles
    • (B) No zero, one pole
    • (C) No zero, two poles
    • (D) One zero, no pole
      Answer: (A) One zero, two poles
      Explanation: The numerator provides one zero at $s = 0$, while the denominator introduces two poles at $s = -1$ and $s = -2$.

17. The diameter of an atom is of the order of:

    • (A) $10^{-6} \, m$
    • (B) $10^{-10} \, m$
    • (C) $10^{-15} \, m$
    • (D) $10^{-21} \, m$
      Answer: (B) $10^{-10} \, m$
      Explanation: Atomic diameters are generally around $10^{-10}$ meters.

18. If the D.C. value of a rectified output is 300 V & peak-to-peak ripple voltage is 10 V, the ripple factor is:

    • (A) 1.18%
    • (B) 3.33%
    • (C) 3.36%
    • (D) 6.66%
      Answer: (B) 3.33%
      Explanation: Ripple factor is calculated using the formula $\frac{V_{ripple}}{V_{DC}}$, giving $\frac{10V}{300V}$.

19. Compared to a common base (CB) amplifier, the common emitter (CE) amplifier has higher:

    • (A) Current amplification
    • (B) Output dynamic resistance
    • (C) Leakage current
    • (D) Input dynamic resistance
    • (E) All of the above
      Answer: (E) All of the above
      Explanation: CE amplifiers typically offer higher current gain and other parameters compared to CB amplifiers.

General Knowledge Questions

1. Which pass was opened between India and China for trade?

   • (A) Nathula
   • (B) Khardungla
   • (C) Chumbi
   • (D) Solang
     Answer: (A) Nathula
     Explanation: Nathula Pass has been historically significant for trade between India and Tibet.

2. The threat of global warming is increasing due to increasing concentration of:

   • (A) Ozone
   • (B) Nitrous oxide
   • (C) Sulphur dioxide
   • (D) Carbon dioxide
     Answer: (D) Carbon dioxide
     Explanation: Carbon dioxide is a major greenhouse gas contributing to global warming.

3. The Finance Commission is primarily concerned with recommending to the President about:

   • (A) The principle governing grants-in-aid to the States
   • (B) Distributing the net proceeds of the taxes between the Centre and the States
   • (C) Neither nor
   • (D) Both and
     Answer: (D) Both and
     Explanation: The Finance Commission addresses both principles and distribution of taxes.

4. The ball used in which of the games is usually oval in shape?

   • (A) Rugby
   • (B) Golf
   • (C) Polo
   • (D) Volleyball
     Answer: (A) Rugby
     Explanation: Rugby is played with an oval-shaped ball.

5. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of:

   • (A) One month
   • (B) One year
   • (C) Seven days
   • (D) Fourteen days
     Answer: (D) Fourteen days
     Explanation: Rajya Sabha can delay but not veto the Finance Bill for a maximum of 14 days.

6. Who is known as the first Law Officer of India?

   • (A) Chief Justice of India
   • (B) Law Minister of India
   • (C) Solicitor General of India
   • (D) Law Secretary
     Answer: (C) Solicitor General of India
     Explanation: The Solicitor General represents the Government of India in legal matters.

7. Nathu La Pass is situated in which state?

   • (A) Arunachal Pradesh
   • (B) Assam
   • (C) Meghalaya
   • (D) Sikkim
     Answer: (D) Sikkim
     Explanation: Nathu La Pass is located in Sikkim, connecting India and Tibet.

8. As per recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission, the percentage share of States of the shareable central taxes is?

   • (A) 28.5
   • (B) 29.5
   • (C) 30.5
   • (D) 32.4
     Answer: (C) 30.5
     Explanation: The Twelfth Finance Commission recommended a share of 30.5% for the States.

9. In India, national income is estimated by:

   • (A) Planning Commission
   • (B) Central Statistical Organization
   • (C) Indian Statistical Institute
   • (D) National Sample Survey Organization
     Answer: (B) Central Statistical Organization
     Explanation: The Central Statistical Organization is responsible for estimating national income.

10. Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of an emergency period by the Parliament?

    • (A) 14 days
    • (B) 1 month
    • (C) 3 months
    • (D) 6 months
      Answer: (B) 1 month
      Explanation: The Parliament must ratify an emergency within one month of its proclamation.