SAIL Mental Ability questions
SAIL Mental Ability Questions with answers
Q.1) The largest continent is:
(1) South Africa
(2) Europe
(3) Africa
(4) Asia -Answer
Q.2) Which pass was opened between India and China for trade?
(1) Nathula -Answer
(2) Khardungla
(3) Chumbi
(4) Solang
Q.3) If Drowsy is written as HVSAWC, BEAUTY will be written as:
(1) FIEYXC-Answer
(2) EHDXWC
(3) GJFZYD
(4) KFBVUC
Q.4) Out of 1, 2, 3 and 4, which figure will come next of figure
2-Answer
Q.5) The highest railway line has been opened in July 2006 in which country?
(1) India
(2) Mongolia
(3) China -Answer
(4) Russia
Q.6) 7, 7,14, 42, 168, ?
(1) 840 -Answer
(2) 672
(3) 504
(4) 336
Q.7) What is earlier name of the present ‘National Library in Kolkata’?
(1) Imperial library-Answer
(2) British library
(3) Royal library
(4) Albert library
Q.8) The cube root of 1331 is :
(1) 11 -Answer
(2) 13
(3) 19
(4) 17
Q.9) At which inclination earth rotates about its axis
(1) 23and 1/2-Answer
(2) 22and 1/2
(3) 21and 1/2
(4) 20
Q.10) Jagan went to another town covering 240 km by car moving at 60 kmph. Then he covered 400km by train moving at 100 kmph and then rest 200 km he covered by a bus moving at 50 kmph. The average
speed during the whole journey was:
(1) 80 kmph
(2) 70 kmph-Answer
(3) 75 kmph
(4) 72 kmph
Q.11)The area of a triangle is equal to the area of a square whose each side is 60 metres. The height of the triangle is 90 metres. The base of the triangle will be
(1) 75 m
(2) 85 m
(3) 65 m
(4) 80 m -Answer
Q.12)A horse is tied at the corner of a rectangular field, whose length is 20m and width is 16m with a rope whose length is 14m. Find the area which the horse can graze?
(1) 156 sq.m.
(2) 154 sq.m.-Answer
(3) 164 sq.m.
(4) 144 sq.m.
Q.13)The capital of Mauritius is
(1) Port Louis -Answer
(2) Male
(3) Suva
(4) Kabul
Q.14) Pedal : Cycling : Oar : ?
(1) Gliding
(2) Surfing
(3) Skating
(4) Rowing -Answer
Q.15)Sam and Rita was sitting in a park in the evening looking at the sunset to the horizon. What is the direction of their right hand side?
(1) East
(2) West
(3) North -Answer
(4) South
Q.16)The highest total runs scored by a team in an ODI circket match is:
(1) 438 -Answer
(2) 443
(3) 326
(4) 400
Q.17) A shopkeeper buys 144 eggs at 90 paise each. In the way 20 eggs were broken. He sold the remaining eggs at Rs. 1.20 each.
The percentage gain or loss is
(1) 14.8% gain
(2) 12.9% gain-Answer
(3) 8.5% gain
(4) 4.8% gain
Q.18)In 1858 the first train from Howrah ran to
(1) Hooghly
(2) Bardhaman
(3) Bandel -Answer
(4) Chinsura
Q.19)Who was the Prime Minister of Britain when India got independence?
(1) Winston Churchill
(2) Clement Atlee-Answer
(3) Wilson
(4) None of these
Q.20)The ball used in which of the games is usually oval in shape?
(1) Rugby-Answer
(2) Golf
(3) Polo
(4) Volleyball
Q.21)What is the value of x if 4x = 5y?
(1) 100-Answer
(2) 115
(3) 110
(4) 105
Q.22) It takes 40 men eight days to earn Rs. 2000. How many men will earn Rs. 200 in two days?
(1) 10
2) 14
(3) 16 -Answer
(4) 20
Q.23
(1) 0.002
(2) 0.02 -Answer
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.0002
Q.24)A pipe of 2 inch diameter fills the water tank in one hour. If the diameter of the pipe is 4 inch in whattime will the pipe fill the same tank?
(1) 10 minutes
(2) 15 minutes-Answer
(3) 30 minutes
(4) 45 minutes
Q.25)If the arithmetic mean of six numbers is 4.5, what is the total sum of these numbers?
(1) 25
(2) 27-Answer
(3) 64
(4) cannot be estimated
SAIL Latest Placement paperMental Ability Questions
Steel Authority of India (SAIL) SAIL MT Exam Placement Paper - Reasoning Previous Paper With Solution
SAIL Placement Paper -MENTAL ABILITY -Questions with solutions
Q.3) If 2x + 3y = 10 and y < 4, then
(A) x > -1 (B) x < -1 (C) x > 0 (D) x < 0
Q.4) Ram started his journey at 9.00 a.m. at 8 km/hour. Hamid started from the same spot in the same direction at 9.30 a.m. at 10 km/hour. Hamid overtakes Ram at :
(A) 11.00 a.m. (B) 12.30 p.m. 12.00 noon (D) 11.30 a.m.
Q.5) A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 10 days and A, B and C together in 5 days. C alone can do it in:
(A) 17 days (B) 27 days (C) 60 days (D) 30 days
Q.7) What least number must be subtracted from each of the numbers 17, 17, 34, 42 so that the ratio of first two is the same as the ratio of the next two?
(A) 0 (zero) (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 7
Q.8) A circular road runs around a circular garden. If the sum of the circumferences of the inner and outer circles is 88 metres and the radius of the inner circle is one-third of the outer circle, then the width of the road is :
(A) 4 metres (B) 5 metres (C) 6 metres (D) 7 metres
Q.9) A city has a population of 3,00,000 out of which 1,80,000 are males. 50% of the population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate, the number of literate females is :
(A) 20,000 (B) 24,000 (C) 30,000 (D) 34,000
Q.10) The cost price of an article is Rs. 100. To gain 50% after allowing a 50% discount, the market price of the article is :
(A) Rs. 200 (B) Rs. 400 (C) Rs. 350 (D) Rs. 300
Q.11) In three annual examinations, of which the aggregate marks of each was 500, a student secured average marks 45% and 55% in the first and the second yearly examinations respectively. To secure 60% average total marks, it is necessary for him in third yearly examination to secure marks :
(A) 300 (B) 350 (C) 400 (D) 450
Q.12) If RUNNER is coded by SUMMER, the code for WINTER will be :
(A) XIMSER (B) VINTER SINVER (D) VIOUER
answers
1. (C) 2. (D)3. (C)4. (D)5. (C) 6. (D)7. (C)8. (D)9. (B)10. (D) 11. (C) 12
Q.13) P is 300 kms eastward of O and Q is 400 kms north of O. R is exactly in the middle of Q and P. The distance between Q and R is :
(A) 300 kms (B) 350 kms (C) 250 kms (D) 250v2 kms
Q.14) A man borrows Rs. 1200.00 from a bank for a period of 3 months. He finds that he has to repay Rs. 1236.00. The bank rate of interest is:
(A) 3% (B) 6% (C) 12% (D) 24%
Q.15) In climbing a round pole of 80 metres height, a monkey climbs 5 metres in a minute and slips 2 metres in the alternate minute. To get to the top of the pole, the monkey would take :
(A) 51 minutes (B) 54 minutes (C) 58 minutes (D) 61 minutes
Q.16) A man travels by a car for 3 days. He traveled 10 hours each day. He drove on the first day at 45 km/hr, second day at 40 km/hr and third day at 20 km/hr. His average speed was :
(A) 30 km/hr (B) 35 km/hr (C) 38 km/hr (D) 40 km/hr
Q.17) Forty three persons went to a canteen which sold cold drink ‘Maaza’ and ‘Pepsi’. If 18 persons took Maaza only, 8 took Pepsi only and 5 took nothing, find how many took both the drinks :
(A) 35 (B) 21 (C) 12 (D) 26
Q.18) A man works for 2 days and then rests for one day, then works for 2 days and rests for one day and so For everyday he works, he earns Rs. 100. How much will he earn from Monday to Saturday?
(A) Rs. 200 (B) Rs. 300 (C) Rs. 400 (D) Rs. 500
Q.19) A rectangular plot of lawn of length and width respectively x and y metres is surrounded by a pathway of 2 metres width. The total area of pathway is :
(A) 2x + 2y + 4 (B) 2x + 2y + 8 (C) 4x + 4y + 8 (D) 4x + 4y + 16
Q.21) Unscramble the letters of words and find odd one out.
(1) TLAES (2) KOBO (3) PPREA (4) NCEPLI
Q.22) A square park is surrounded by a path of uniform width 2 metres all round it. The area of the path is sq. metres. The perimeter of the park is
(1) 142 m (2) 128 m (3) 136 m (4) 118 m
Q.24) India has won the “World Cup Hockey” title:
(1) Twice (2) Once (3) Thrice (4) Never
Q.25) The price of T.V. set inclusive of sales tax of 9% is Rs. 13.407. Find its marked price.
(1) Rs. 12,300 (2) Rs. 11,500 (3) Rs. 12,500 (4) Rs. 12,400
ANSWERS
(A)13. (C)14. (C)15. (A) 16. (B)17. (C)18. (C)19. (D)20. (C) 21. (1) 22. (3)23. (1)24. (2)25. (1)
Steel Authority of India (SAIL) SAIL MT Exam Placcement Paper - Reasoning Previous Paper With Solution
1. How many cards of E type are inserted in brown envelopes?
* Nil
* One
* Answer is: Two
* Three
* Data inadequate
2. Which of the following combinations of the type of cards and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of yellow-coloured envelopes?
* A-2, B-I, C-2
* B-I, C-2. D-2
* A-2, E-l, D-2
* Answer is: A-3, B-1 C-1
* None of these
3. Which of the following combinations of types of cards and the number of cards and colour of envelope is definitely correct?
* Answer is: C-2, D-1, E-2, Brown
* C-1,D-2,E-2,Brown
* B-2, D-2, A-I, Red
* A-2,B-2,C-1,Yellow
* None of these
4. Which of the following combinations of colour of the envelope and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of E type cards?
* Red-2, Brown-l
* Red-1,Yellow-2
* Red-2, Yellow- 1
* Yellow-1,Brown-2
* Answer is: None of these
5. “Forty per cent of our products are sold in rural area, fifty-three per cent are sold in semi-urban area, sixty per cent of employees are from rural area.” Which of the following statements is definitely true?
* The company’s products are purchased only by its employees and their family.
* The company does not desire to recruit urban employees.
* The company’s products are required in big urban cities and metro areas.
* The company holds approximately 90% of the market share in its product line.
* Answer is: None of these
6. “We do not advertise, our product speaks for itself.”— Statement of manufacturer of two-wheeler ‘BJA’.
Which of the following, if true, would support and strengthen this statement?
(i) The prices of BJA two-wheelers are on higher side.
(ii) ‘BJA’ has won award for Quality Control Systems.
(iii) The BJA two-wheeler is sleek-looking and has good colours.
(iv) The salaries of BJA employees are better than government services.
* Only (i) and (ii)
* Answer is: Only (ii) and (iii)
* Only (iii) and (iv)
* Only (i), (ii) and (iiii)
* None of these
Directions (Q. 7-13): Read the following in formation carefully and answer the following questions:
Following are the criteria for organizing interview of such candidates as have been selected from the promotion to officer’s grade from assistant grade in the PRS Industrial Group Limited:
The candidate to be called for interview must:
(i) be a graduate with minimum 50% marks.
(ii) have minimum five years’ experience in the clerical cadre job.
(iii) have obtained at least ‘C’ ratings in performance (speed of work) and the quality of work each during the last three years. For this five ratings A, 8, C, D and E-have been created on the basis of ”Performance Appraisal Report” with the lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of E.
(iv) have obtained at least ‘D’ ratings in the approach of work (dependability) and in the flexibility of work each for his/her works in the last three years. For this, seven ratings A, B,C, D, E, F and G have been formulated on the basis of “Performance Appraisal Report” with lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of G.
However, in case of a candidate who fulfills all other criteria EXCEPT
(a)(i) above, but has passed Graduation Exam and has got ‘E’ ratings in the approach of work in the last three years, may be referred to the Assistant Manager (Personnel).
(b) (ii) above, but has experience of three years in clerical cadre job and has got at least ‘D’ ratings in the quality of work for his/her works in the last three years, may be referred to the Deputy Manager (Personnel).
Based on these criteria and information provided against each candidate, decide the course of action. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided are not adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be “Data inadequate”. All the candidates fulfill the criterion of age. V Give answer
(1) if data are inadequate (2) if not to be selected (3) if selected for the interview (4) if case is referred to the Assistant Manager (5) if case is referred to the Deputy Manager
7. Mohammed Sheikh is a brilliant post-graduate in Science and has secured 63% and5 marks in graduation and post graduation respectively. He has ‘E’ grade for dependability and flexibility inPerformance Appraisal Report for last four years. He has got ‘C’ rating for quality of work and speed of work. He joined the Bank four years ago.
* data are inadequate
* Answer is: not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager
8. Kiran Bala is a young lady and laborious assistant who joined this organisation six years ago after passing B. Commerce Exam. The ratings being given to her for the last 4 years are ‘D’ and ‘C’ respectively for quality of work and speed of work. She is one of the leaders of the clerks. She has got ‘D’ ratings for flexibility of work for the last 5 years.
* Answer is: data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager
9. Marks details missing Mandar Rhave has passed his Graduation in Science and Diploma in Business Management with 58% and 62% respectively. lie is good player of chess. His rating on PAR are ‘D’ for ‘dependability’ and ‘flexibility’ whereas he has ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of work’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘speed of work’ for the last 4 years.
* Answer is: data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager
10. Joining Date missing Anubhav Rege is with the company for last seven years. For the last 4 years he has ‘D’ rating for ‘quality of work’, ‘C’ rating for ‘speed of work’, ‘F’ rating for ‘dependability’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘flexibility’. His marks in graduation and post-graduation are 46% and 50% respectively. He is very fond of cultural activities
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* Answer is: case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager
12. Shivasundaram has got ‘D’ rating since he joined the bank three years ago on quality of work, speed of work, dependability and flexibility. He has passed his graduation and post graduation with 52% and 47% marks respectively. Shivasundaram is a popular employee because of his social activities.
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* Answer is: case is referred to the Deputy Manager
12. Seema Mukhi is working in the clerical cadre for last five-and-a-half years. She has got ‘D’ and ‘E’ ratings respectively on ‘flexibility’ and ‘dependability’ and ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of work’ and ‘speed of work’ for last four years. She has obtained 55% and 48% at SSC and graduation respectively.
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* Answer is: case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager
13. Anthony Cruz is a sportsman and is Vice-Captain of cricket team of PRS Industries Ltd. He is working with the company for last seven years in theclerical cadre. The rating being given to him for the last 3 years is ‘C’ and ‘D’ grade for quality of work and speed of work respectively. Similarly, he has ‘D’ grade for dependability and flexibility in PAR. He is an Arts graduate with 54% of marks
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* Answer is: selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager
Directions (Q. 14-18): In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3) (4) and (5) is the correct answer.
14. Statement: “A rare opportunity to be a professional while you are at home..— An advertisement for computer-literate housewives by a computer company
Assumptions: I. Some housewives simultaneously desire to become professional.
IL Computer industry is growing at a fast pace.
III. It is possible to be a professional as well as a housewife.
* Only I and II
* Only II and III
* Answer is: Only I and III
* Only II
* None of these
15. Statement: India’s economic growth has come at a terrible price of increased industrial and vehicular pollution.
Assumptions: I. Pollution is a part of industrial society.
II. Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth.
Ill. A country desires economic growth with manageable side-effects.
* only I
* Only II
* Answer is: Only I and III
* Only III
* None of these
16. Statement: Efforts to develop technologies more appropriate to the needs of the poorest sections of society need to be further intensified.
Assumptions: I: Nothing is impossible if proper efforts are made.
II. Technology needs are different for different sections of society.
III It is possible to develop appropriate technologies for various economic sections of the society.
* Only I
* Only III
* Only II
* Answer is: Both II and III
* None of these
17. Statement: “We have the distinction of being the only company in India as well as the second in the world to have won an ISO 9002 quality certification in our line of business”- Statement of company X’s Chairman.
Assumptions: I. There were not many companies in the line of business of Company ‘X’.
II Getting ISO 9002 in the line of business of Company “X’ is not easy.
III. The company ‘X’ desires to expand its business.
* Only I
* Only II
* Only III
* Answer is: Only II and III
* None of these
18. Its Difficult to get and Chairman is highlighting this fact only to expand business Statement: Co-operative social relationships contribute to develop individual potentialities.
Assumptions: I Every society desires to prosper.
II. Individuals desire to develop their potential.
III It is possible to create and maintain co-operative environment in a society.
* Answer is: Only II and III
* Only II and I
* Only I and III
* Only II
* None of these
19. In a school class there are 65 children boys outnumber the girls by 21. How many girls are in the class .
* 21
* Answer is: 22
* 26
* 28
* None of these
20. John had appointment in Delhi .He Reached there on Sunday. He found that he was three days earlier than the meeting day. If he had reached on the following Friday how many days late would he has been.
* one day
* Answer is: two days
* three days
* four days
* None of these
SAIL Chemical Engineering Placement Papers
SAIL chemical engineering questions with answers
1. Which of the following chemicals is used for dosing boiler drum to reduce dissolve gases ?
a) Alum
b) Chlorine
c) Hydrazine (Ans)
d) Calcium
2. The total dissolve solids (TDS) after water treatment through a water softener plant
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same (Ans)
d) may increase or decrease
3. The insulation thickness for which the total cost is minimum is called
a) economic thickness of insulation (Ans)
b) minimum insulation thickness
c) maximum insulation thickness
d) cheapest insulation thickness
4. Which of the following does not contribute to efficient to use of steam ?
a) Superheated steam for indirect process heating (Ans)
b) Insulation of steam pipelines
c) Providing dry steam for process
d) Reducing work to be done by steam
5. Which among the following steam turbines has the maximum efficiency ?
a) condensing turbine (Ans)
b) Extraction condensing turbine
c) Back pressure turbine
d) Double extraction condensing turbine
6. The equipment having the highest efficiency in case of conventional power plant is
a) electric generator (Ans)
b) boiler
c) gas turbine
d) cooling tower
7. The equipment used to remove dirt from steam lines installed before steam trap is
a) bypass line
b) drain valve
c) strain (Ans)
d) vent valve
8. Which type of steam is ideal for indirect heat transfer in a heat exchanger?
a) Wet steam
b) Dry saturated steam (Ans)
c) Superheated steam
d) none of these
9. Recovery of heat from dryer exhaust air is a typical application of
a) heat pump
b) heat pipe
c) heat wheel (Ans)
d) heat exchanger (double pipe type)
10. Which of the following co-generation system has maximum heat to power ratio ?
a) Reciprocating engine
b) Gas turbine
c) Back pressure steam turbine (Ans)
d) Combined cycle
11. Which is the best location for measuring CO2 & O2% in flue gases for combustion efficiency in a thermal power plant ?
a) After the economiser
b) Outlet of the boiler (Ans)
c) Bottom of the Chimney
d) Before the economiser
12. If an equipment's steam consumption is 2 tons/hr, then what should be the steam trap capacity in tons/hr?
a) 1.5
b) 2
c) 3 (Ans)
d) 6
13. The device used to upgrade a lower pressure steam to a higher pressure steam is called
a) jet ejector
b) heat pump
c) thermocompressor (Ans)
d) heat wheel
14. Steam generation in a boiler is 26 tons in 2 hours. Fuel consumption in the same period is 1 ton/hr. Continuous blowdown is 10% of feed water input. The evaporation ratio is
a) 11.7
b) 12
c) 13 (Ans)
d) 26
15. If the voltage level of distribution system is raised from 11kV to 22 kV for the same loading condition, the distribution losses are reduced by ----per cent.
a) 11
b) 22
c) 25 (Ans)
d) 45
16. A 230 V single phase line supplies to a load of 25 amperes at 0.80 power factor. The active power supplied by the line will be
a) 4.6 kW (Ans)
b) 4.6 kVA
c) 7.96 kW
d) 7.96 MVA
17. If the gross heat rate of a thermal power plant is given, then the efficiency is equal to the -------of gross heat rate.
a) inverse (Ans)
b) square
c) square root
d) cube root
18. The rating of the capacitor at motor terminals should not be more than the magnetizing kVAR of the motor at ------load.
a) full
b) half
c) no (Ans)
d) 75%
19. A screw compressor belongs to the positive displacement compressor type. The other name for the screw compressor is the -------compressor.
a) reciprocating
b) centrifugal
c) helical axial
d) helical rotary (Ans)
20. Which compressor best meets the high volume low pressure requirements?
a) Reciprocating compressor
b) Centrifugal compressor (Ans)
c) Lobe compressor
d) Rotary compressor
21. Which of the following can also act as a heat pump ?
a) Air conditioner (Ans)
b) Reciprocating compressor
c) Centrifugal compressor
d) none of these
22. A three phase induction motor loaded at less than 50% , if operated in star mode will reult in
a) electrical downsizing of the motor
b) improved efficiency & power factor
c) reduced operating voltage
d) all a, b & c (Ans)
23. The driving force for refrigeration vapor absorption refrigeration system is -------energy
a) electrical
b) mechanical
c) thermal (Ans)
d) both a&b
24. What loading percentage can be ideally considered as a meaningful figure to decide on the best motor efficiency in the selection process ?
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75 (Ans)
d) 100
25. An eight pole induction motor operating at 50 Hz will have a synchronous speed of ----- rpm.
a) 750 (Ans)
b) 1500
c) 2250
d) 3000
26. In a double pipe heat exchanger the I.D and O.D. of the inner pipe are 4cm & 5cms respectively. The I.D. of the outer pipe is 10cm with a wall thickness of 1cm. Then the equivalent diameters (in cm) of the annulus of heat transfer and pressure drop respectively are
a) 15, 5 (Ans)
b) 21, 6
c) 6, 19
d) 15, 21
27. Hydraulic mean diameter for flow through packed bed of spherical particles of size Dp with porosity e is
{C}{C}{C}{C}
28. The sphericity of a cylinder of 1 mm diameter and length 3 mm is
a) 0.90 (Ans)
b) 0.79
c) 0.60
d) 0.50
29. When an unsaturated air-water vapor mixture is heated at constant pressure, then the
a) partial pressure of water vapor increases
b) specific humidity decreases
c) relative humidity increases
d) relative humidity decreases (Ans)
30. Two iron pipes of the same nominal diameter but different schedule numbers will have the same
a) inside diameter (Ans)
b) outside diameter
c) wall thickness
d) none of the above
SAIL Model questions of Chemical Engineering Heat Transfer for learn and practice,SAIL multiple choice objective questions with answers and detailed explanations
1. Loss of heat from unlagged steam pipe to the ambient air is by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all (a), (b) & (c) (Ans)
2. Fourier's law applies to the heat transfer by
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction (Ans)
(d) all (a), (b) & (c)
3. Fourier's law of heat conduction applies to .......... surfaces.
(a) isothermal
(b) non-isothermal
(c) both (a) and (b) (Ans)
(d) neither (a) and (b)
4. Unsteady state heat conduction occurs, when
(a) temperature distribution is independent of time
(b) temperature distribution is dependent on time (Ans)
(c) heat flows in one direction only
(d) three dimensional heat flow is concerned
5. What is the unit of thermal conductivity ?
(a) Kcal/hr.m2 0C
(b) Kcal/hr.m. 0C (Ans)
(c) Kcal/hr.m
(d) Kcal/hr.0C
6. The unit of heat transfer co-efficient is
(a) BTU/hr.ft2 0F (Ans)
(b) BTU/hr.0F.ft.
(c) BTU/hr.0F
(d) BTU/hr.ft
7. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) Rate = Driving force * Resistance
(b) Driving force = Rate * Resistance (Ans)
(c) Resistance = Driving force * Rate
(d) Rate = Resistance/Driving force
8. An insulator should have
(a) low thermal conductivity (Ans)
(b) high thermal conductivity
(c) less resistance to heat flow
(d) a porous structure
9. Heat flux through several resistance in series in analogous to the current flowing through several
(a) resistances in parallel
(b) capacitors in series
(c) resistances in series (Ans)
(d) none of these
10. The overall resistance for heat transfer through a series of flat resistance, is the ..... of the resistances.
(a) average
(b) geometric mean
(c) product
(d) sum (Ans)
11. Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity ?
(a) Brick
(b) Air
(c) Water
(d) Silver (Ans)
12. Which area is used in case of heat flow by conduction through a cylinder ?
(a) Logarithmic mean area (Ans)
(b) Arithmetic mean area
(c) Geometric mean area
(d) None of these
13. For heat flow through very thick walled cylinder, use ............ mean radius.
(a) arithmetic
(b) logarithmic (Ans)
(c) geometric
(d) either (a) or (c)
14. What is the logarithmic mean of r1 and r2 ?
(a) r1 - r2/ln r1/r2 (Ans)
(b) r1 - r2/ln r2/r1
(c) r2 - r1/ln r1/r2
(d) r1 - r2/ - ln r1/r2
15. What is Nusselt number ?
(a) Cp.µ/k
(b) hD/k (Ans)
(c) h.Cp/µ
(d) Cp.µ/h
16. Prandtl number is given by
(a) Cp.µ/a
(b) hD/k
(c) Cp.µ/k (Ans)
(d) µ/h.Cp
17. Thermal diffusivity is given by
(a) k/r.Cp (Ans)
(b) r.Cp/k
(c) Cp.µ/a
(d) µ/hCp
18. Grashhoff number is given by
(a) g D3. ß .? tr2/µ2 (Ans)
(b) g D2ß?tr/µ2
(c) g D2ß?tr2µ
(d) g D3ß?tr2/µ
19. If h1 = inner film co-efficient and h2 = outer film co-efficient, then the overall heat transfer co-efficient is
(a) always less than h1
(b) always between h1 and h2 (Ans)
(c) always higher than h2
(d) dependent on metal resistance
20. Gratez number is give by
(a) mCp/kL (Ans)
(b) kL/mCp
(c) mCp/kµ
(d) kL/mCp
21. In the equation Q= UA ?t ; ?t is
(a) geometric mean temperature difference.
(b) arithmetic mean temperature difference.
(c) logarithmic mean temperature difference. (Ans)
(d) the difference of average bulk temperatures of hot and cold fluids.
22. Peclet number (Pe) is given by
(a) Pe = Re.Pr (Ans)
(b) Pe = Re/Pr
(c) Pe = Pr/Re
(d) Pe = Nu.Re
23. Prandtl number is the reciprocal of
(a) Thermal diffusivity/ Momentum diffusivity (Ans)
(b) thermal diffusivity x Momentum
(c) Thermal diffusivity x Mass diffusivity
(d) Mass diffusivity x Momentum diffusivity
24. Maximum heat transfer rate is obtained in .......... flow.
(a) laminar
(b) turbulent (Ans)
(c) creeping
(d) transition region
25. Heat flux is the time rate of heat transfer per unit
(a) length
(b) area (Ans)
(c) volume
(d) none of these
26. Nusselt number is the ratio of the
(a) temperature gradient of the wall to that across the entire pipe. (Ans)
(b) temperature difference to the temperature gradient at the wall.
(c) heat flux at the wall to that across the entire pipe.
(d) none of these
27. Fouling factor
(a) is a dimensionless quantity.
(b) does not provide a safety factor for design.
(c) accounts for additional resistances to heat flow. (Ans)
(d) none of these.
28. Viscosity of gases ....... with increase in temperature.
(a) increase very rapidly
(b) increase slowly (Ans)
(c) decrease slowly
(d) remain unaffected
29. Heat transfer co-efficient (h1) for liquids increases with
(a) increasing temperature (Ans)
(b) decreasing temperature
(c) decreasing Reynolds number
(d) none of these
30. At what value of Prandtl number, conduction is negligible in the turbulent core of a fluid flowing through a heated pipe ?
(a) 0.5
(b) < 0.5
(c) > 0.6 (Ans)
(d) < 0.1
31. At Pr > 1, conduction in an ordinary fluid flowing through a heated pipe is limited to the
(a) buffer zone
(b) turbulent core (Ans)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) viscous sub-layer
32. Conduction occurs in the buffer zone for a fluid flowing through a heated pipe, only when Prandtl number is
(a) 0.1
(b) > 1
(c) < 1 (Ans)
(d) 1
33. Natural convection is characterized by
(a) Grashhoff number (Ans)
(b) Peclet number
(c) Reynolds number
(d) Prandtl number
34. Which of the following is unimportant in forced convection ?
(a) Reynolds number
(b) Prandtl number
(c) Grashhoff number (Ans)
(d) none of these
35. In fored convection, the heat transfer depends on
(a) Re, Pr (Ans)
(b) Re, Gr
(c) mainly Gr
(d) Re only
36. The characteristic dimensionless groups for heat transfer to a fluid flowing through a pipe in laminar flow are
(a) Re. Gz
(b) Nu, Pr
(c) Nu, Pr, Re
(d) Nu, Gz (Ans)
37. At what value of Prandtl number, the hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layers of a fluid flowing over a heated plate will be identical ?
(a) 1 (Ans)
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) none of these
38. Reynold's analogy states that
(a) St = f/2 (Ans)
(b) St = f/4
(c) St = 4f
(d) St = f1/2
39. For what value of Prandtl number, St = f/2 ?
(a) 1.5
(b) 1 (Ans)
(c) > 1
(d) < 1
40. Which has the lowest Prandtl number ?
(a) Liquid metal (Ans)
(b) Aqueous solution
(c) Water
(d) Lube oil
41. Dietus-Boelter equation used for the determination of heat transfer co-efficient is valid
(a) for fluids in laminar flow
(b) for fluids in tubulent flow (Ans)
(c) when Grashhoff number is very important
(d) for liquid metals
42. For what value of Prandtl number, the Colburn analogy is valid ?
(a) 0.06 to 120
(b) 0.6 to 120 (Ans)
(c) 1 to 103
(d) 1 to 50
43. Pick out the correct equation.
(a) jH = (St) (Pr)2/3 = f/2 (Ans)
(b) jH = (St) (Pr)1/3 = f/2
(c) jH = (St)2/3 (Pr) = f/2
(d) jH = (St)1/3 (Pr) = f/2
44. Choose the correct equation.
(a) Nu = (Re) (Pr) (Gz)
(b) Nu = (Re) (Pr) (St) (Ans)
(c) Nu = (Re) (Pr)
(d) Nu = (Pr) (St)
45. For a liquid in laminar flow through a very long tube, when the exit fluid temperature approaches the wall temperature, the equation to be used is
(a) Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 . Pr0.4
(b) Nu = p/2 Gz
(c) Nu = 2/p Gz (Ans)
(d) Nu = 2Gz0.5
46. If average heat transfer co-efficient is ha and the local coefficient at the end of the plate is hl then in case of heat transfer to a fluid flowing over a flat plate, heated over its entire length
(a) ha = hl
(b) ha = 2 hl (Ans)
(c) ha = 0.5 hl
(d) ha = 0.75 hl
47. When does the heat generated by fluid friction becomes appreciable compared to the heat transferred between the fluids ?
(a) At high fluid velocity (Ans)
(b) At low velocity
(c) When fluid flows past a smooth surface
(d) None of these
48. The heat transfer co-efficient in film type condensation is ....... that for dropwise condensation.
(a) greater than
(b) lower than (Ans)
(c) is same as
(d) half
49. Prandtl number is the ratio of
(a) momentum diffusivity to mass diffusivity
(b) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity (Ans)
(c) thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
(d) thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
50. All analogy equations connecting friction factor and heat transfer co-efficient apply only to
(a) wall or skin friction (Ans)
(b) form friction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) turbulent flow
SAIL Civil-Engineering
SAIL Management Trainee Exam for Civil Engineering
1. Which one of the following tests is performed in the laboratory to determine the extent of weathering of aggregates for road works?
(a) Soundness test
(b) Crushing test
(c) Impact test
(d) Abrasion test
Ans. (a)
2. Which one of the following geometric features requires the magnitudes of weaving angle and weaving distance for its design?
(a) Rotary design
(b) Right-angle intersection
(c) Roundabout
(d) Grade-separated junction
Ans. (a)
3. Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?
(a) CBR method
(b) Group index method
(c) Westergaard?s method
(d) McLeod?s method
Ans. (c)
4. In which one of the following yards, are reception, sorting and dispatch of railway wagons done?
(a) Loco yard
(b) Marashalling yard
(c) Goods yard
(d) Passenger yard
Ans. (b)
5. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a highway meterial?
(a) Stability
(b) Ease of compaction
(c) Good drainage
(d) Bitumen adhesion
Ans. (d)
6. Consider the following statements:
In surverying operations, the word ?reciprocal? can be associated with
1. ranging
2. levelling
3. contouring
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
7. How many- sidereal days are there in a solar year?
(a) 365.2840
(b) 366.2422
(c) 360.2500
(d) 365.0000
Ans. (b)
8. Consider the following statements
A sidereal year can be defined as the time interval:
1. between two successive transits .of the sun through the meridian of any of the fixed stars
2. between two successive passages of the sun through perigee
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
Ans. (b)
9. Which one of the following methods of computing area assumes that the short, lengths of the boundary between the ordinates are parabolic ares?
(a) Average ordinate rule
(b) Middle ordinate rule
(c) Simpson?s rule
(d) Trapezoidal rule
Ans. (c)
10. Which one the following errors is more severe in plane-table surveying?
(a) Defective sighting
(b) Defective orientation
(c) Movement of board between sights
(d) Non-horizontality of board when points sighted are at large differences of their elevation
Ans. (b)
11. Which one of the following sets of factors is related to design of thickness rigid pavement by Westergaard method?
(a) CBR value and stiffness index of soil
(b) Deflection factor and traffic index
(c) Swelling index and bulk modulus
(d) Radius of relative stiffness and modulus of subgrade reaction
Ans. (d)
12. Consider the following in relation to group index of soil:
1. Liquid limit
2. Sandy loam
3. Plasticity index
4. Per cent passing 75 microns sieve
Which of the above is/are used for estimating the group index?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
13. Which set of traffic functional design as well as for ?highway capacity? design? \
(a) Origin and destination studies
(b) Parking and accident studies
(c) Speed and volume studies
(d) Axle load studies
Ans. (a)
14. Which one of the following traffic survey schemes is most relevant when deciding on locating major ?routes? in a city?
(a) Traffic volume survey
(b) Origin and destination survey
(c) Speed survey
(d) Traffic capacity survey
Ans. (b)
15. Which one of the following equipments is useful in determining spot speed in traffic engineering?
(a) Endoscope
(b) Periscope
(c) Radar
(d) Tachometer
Ans. (c)
16. Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly constructed bituminous surface followed by spreading of 6.3 mm coarse aggregates and rolled. Which one of the following is indicated by this type of construction?
(a) Surface dressing
(b) Gravel-bitumen mix
(c) Liquid seal coat
(d) Seal coat
Ans. (a)
17. Radius of relative stiffness of cement concrete pavement does not depend upon which one of the following?
(a) Modulus of subgrade reaction
(b) Wheel load
(c) Modulus of elasticity of cement concrete
(d) Poisson?s ratio of concrete
Ans. (b)
18. For conditions obtaining in India, at which location in a cement concrete payement will the combined stresses due to traffic wheel studies is needed for well as for ?highway load and temperature have to be critically checked during design?
(a) Corner
(b) Corner and interior
(c) Corner and edge
(d) Corner, edge and interior
Ans. (d)
19. Consider the following factors:
1. The change in the shape and size of the channel cross-section
2. The change in the slope of the channel
3. The presence of obstruction
4. The change in the frictional forces at the boundaries
Which of the above factors would cause a gradually varied flow?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (a)
20. Under which one of the following categories is the river Ganga classified in the reach through UP and Bihar?
(a) Straight river
(b) Meandering river
(c) Braided river
(d) Deltaic river
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following categories best describes the Hirakud reservoir? (a) Reservoir for irrigation and power
(b) Reservoir for flood control, power and irrigation
(c) Reservoir for irrigation and water supply
(d) Reservoir for recreation and fishery
Ans. (b)
22.. During a particular stage of the growth of a crop, consumptive use of water is 2.8 mm/day. If the amount of water available in the soil is 25% of 80 mm depth of water what is the frequency of irrigation?
(a) 9 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 25 days
Ans. (c)
23.. Consider the following statements:
Irrigation water has to be supplied to the crops when the moisture level falls
1. below field capacity
2. to wilting point
3. below wilting point
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
24.. A groundwater basin consists of 10 km2 area of plains. The maximum groundwater table fluctuation has been observed to be 1.5 m. Consider specific yield of the basin as 10%. What is the available groundwater storage in million cubic metres?
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.0
Ans. (b)
25. Consider the following chemical emulsions:
1. Methyl alcohol
2. Cetyl alcohol
3. Stearyl alcohol
4. Kerosene
Which of the above chemical emulsions is/are used to minimize the loss of water through the process of evaporation?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
26. A catchment area of 60 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.40. If a storm of intensity 3cm h and duration longer than the time of concentration occurs in the catchment, then what is the peak discharge?
(a) 2.0 m3/s
(b) 3.5 m3/s
(c) 4.5 m3/s
(d) 2.5 m3/s
Ans. (a)
27. Which combination of surface water quality parameters will indicate sweep coagulation as the preferred mechanism of coagulation?.
(a) High turbidity ? low alkalinity
(b) High turbidity ? high alkalinity
(c) Low turbidity ? high alkalinity
(d) Low turbidity ? low alkalinity
Ans. (b)
28. In a canal irrigation project, 76% of the culturable command area (CCA) remained without water during Kharif season; and 58% of CCA remained without water during Rabi season in a particular year. Rest of the areas got irrigated in each crop respectively. What is the intensity of irrigation for the project in that year?
(a) 134%
(b) 76%
(c) 66%
(d) 58%
Ans. (b)
29. What is the critical combination of vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability of a gravity dam in reservoir full condition?
(a) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream
(b) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream
(c) Vertically downward and horizontally upstream
(d) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream
Ans. (d)
30. What is the height of wave which is likely to be generated by a wind of 80 km/hr in a reservoir having a fetch of 50 km:
(a) 0.5m
(b) 1.0 m
(c) 2.0 m
(d) 3.0 m
Ans. (c)
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Giving equal weightings to horizontal and vertical creeps for design of weir foundations is one of the drawbacks of Kennedy?s theory.
2. Khosla?s theory of design of foundations for weirs is based on potential theory.
3. Piping problem can be reduced by increasing the length of floor.
4. In Lane?s weighted creep theory, horizontal creep is given less weightage compared to vertical creep.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)
32. The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when the head lost due to friction in the pipe is equal to:
(a) the total supply head
(b) half of the total supply head
(c) one-third of the total supply head
(d) one-fourth of the total supply head
Ans. (c)
33. Consider the following with respect to the application of the Navier-Stokes equations:
1. Laminar flown in circular pipes
2. Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders
3. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates
4. Laminary unit directional flow between parallel plates having relative motion Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only.
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
34. In a siphon system employed for carrying water from a reservoir A at a higher elevation to another reservoir B at lower elevation, both being separated by a higher hill, what will be the pressure at the ?Summit? (S)?
(a) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
(b) Higher than the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
(c) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir B
(d) Less than the pressure at both A and B above
Ans. (d)
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Rehbock formula 1. Sutro weir
B. Francis formula 2. Rectangular suppressed weir
C. A special trapezoidal weir 3. Rectangular side- contracted weir
D. Linear proportional weir 4. Cippolletti weir
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
36. Consider the following statements related to undersluices provided in diversion weirs on permeable foundations:
1. They are fully gate-controlled and have crest at the same level as the weir crest when no silt excluders are provided.
2. They scour the silt deposited on the river bed in the pockets upstream of the canal head regulator.
3. It is not necessary to provide end pile line on the downstream end of the undersluice floor.
4. The discharge capacity of the undersluice is 10-15% of the maximum flood or two times the maximum discharge of the offtaking canal or maximum winter discharge, whichever is the highest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)
37. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose solution?
(a) 300 mg/L
(b) 320 mg/L
(c) 350 mg/L
(d) 400 mg/L
Ans. (b)
38. Consider the following:
1. Force on pipe bends and transitions
2. Jet propulsion
3. Flow velocities in open channel
4. Vortex flow
Which of the above admit employing the moment of momentum equation? (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
39. Consider the following statements:
1. Shear stress is maximum at the centre line.
2. Maximum velocity is 3\2 times the average velocity
3. Discharge varies inversely with the coefficient of viscosity.
4. Slope of hydraulic gradient line increases linearly with the velocity of flow.
Which of the above statements are correct in connection with a steady laminar flow through a circular pipe?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
40. Consider the following statements:
Cavitation generally results from a combination of several influences
1. by reduction of pressure intensity below a limiting value
2. by increase in either elevation or the velocity of flow
3. by reduction of pressure load in the system
4. by decrease in the velocity of flow
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
41. What is Hydrological Cycle?
(a) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land
(b) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea back again
(c) Processes involved in the transfer of water from snowmelt in mountains
(d) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land and back to sea again
Ans. (d)
42. Consider the following with respect to a double-mass curve:
I. Plot of accumulated rainfall with respect to two chronological orders
2. Plot for estimating multiple missing rainfall data
3. Plot for checking the consistency of the rainfall data
4. Plot of accumulated annual rainfall of a station vs. accumulated rainfall of a group of stations Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
43. Generally to estimate PMP, Pm = 42. 16D0.475 is used (Pm is maximum depth of precipitation, D = duration). What are the units of Pm and D in the equation?
(a) mm, sec
(b) cm, sec
(ë) mm, hr
(d) cm, hr
Ans. (d)
44. A triangular direct runoff hydrograph due to a storm has a time base of 60 hr and a peak flow of 30m3/s occurring at 20 hr from the start. If the catchment area is 300 km2, what is the rainfall excess in the storm?
(a) 50 mm
(b) 20 mm
(c) 10.8 mm
(d) 8.3 mm
Ans. (c)
45. A 3 hr unit hydrograph U1 of a catchment of area 235 km2 is in the form of a triangle with peak discharge 30 m3/s. Another 3 hr unit hydrograph U2 is also triangular in shape and has the same base width as U1, but has a peak flow of 90 m3/s. What is the catchment area of U2?
(a) 117.5 km2
(b) 235 km2
(c) 470 km2
(d) 705 km2
Ans. (d)
46. While selecting a centrifugal pump for your requirement of head and discharge on the basis of its performance characteristics, which one of the following criteria is to be adopted?
(a) Head, discharge and efficiency
(b) Head and discharge only
(c) Discharge only
(d) Head only
Ans. (a)
47. Consider the following statements:
The function of the impeller in a centrifugal pump is to:
1. Convert the pressure energy into hydraulic energy
2. Convert the hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
3. Convert the mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
4. transform most of the kinetic energies to pressure energy Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
48. A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its impeller blades are
(a) bent forward
(b) bent backward
(c) straight
(d) wave-shaped
Ans. (b)
49. 1.6 m3 capacity tractor loaded works at a site with an effective per-round-trip time of 64 seconds. Effective delivery of excavated material is 90%. If utilization is 50 minutes per hour working, what will be the productivity in a 4-hour shift?
(a) 253 m3
(b) 262 m3
(c) 270 m3
(d) 282 m3
Ans. (c)
50. By which one of the following, a small quantity of water may be lifted to a great height?
(a) Hydraulic ram
(b) Hydraulic crane
(c) Hydraulic lift
(d) Hydraulic coupling
Ans. (a)
SAIL Electrical-Engineering-EE
With the help of previous year?s question papers and sample papers candidates can gets an idea about the SAIL 2015 examination. SAIL Paper pattern consist of objective queries divided into two sections. Part-I consists of aptitude queries whereas Part-II are going to be having questions from relevant discipline.This is a SAIL management trainee paper including electrical engineering questions.
SAIL Management Trainee Paper
Electrical Engineering Model Paper
Q.1.Two 100-W, 200-V lamps are connected in series across a 200-V supply. The total power consumed by each lamp will be _____ watts.
a. 200
b. 100
c. 50
d. 25
Q.2.The material used for fuse must have
a. low melting point and low specific resistance
b. high melting point and low specific resistance
c. low melting point and high specific resistance
d. none of these
Q.3.The purpose of introducing reactor in the ignition circuit of mercury are rectifier is to limit the
a. voltage of the circuit
b. rate of change of flux in the circuit
c. current in the circuit
d. rate of change of current in the circuit
Q.4.Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
a. a resistance
b. inductance
c. capacitance
d. none of these
Q.5.The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is ______ohm.
a. 75
b. 600
c. 500
d. 250
Q.6.In the case of a lossy capacitor, series equivalent resistance value will be
a. small
b. large
c. very small
d. none of these
Q.7.Time constant of an R-C circuit increases if the value of resistance is
a. decreased
b. increased
c. neither (a) nor (b)
d. either (a) or (b)
Q.8.Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a
a. capacitor in parallel with contacts
b. resistance in the line
c. capacitor in series with contacts
d. none of these
Q.9.dBm is a
a. ratio of power
b. unit of power
c. unit of voltage
d. none of these
Q.10.Decibel is a unit of
a. frequency
b. impedance
c. power ratio
d. none of these
Q.11.The absolute unit of resistance is of the dimension of
a. velocity
b. length
c. acceleration
d. none of these
Q.12.The absolute unit of inductance is of the dimension of
a. time
b. length
c. mass
d. none of these
Q.13.The applied voltage from the circuit being checked is disconnected when an ohmmeter is used because
a. the current will decrease the resistance
b. the ohmmeter has its own battery
c. no current is needed for meter movements
d. none of these
Q.14.An accurate voltmeter must have an internal impedance of
a. very high value
b. very low value
c. low value
d. none of these
Q.15.A moving ?coil instrument can be used to measure
a. high frequency a.c.
b. low frequency a.c
c. both d.c. and a.c
d. direct current
Q.16.The voltage drop across the moving coil of a 50-µ A (f.s) PMMC meter at full- scale deflection is ---- the voltage drop across that of a 1-mA (fs) PMMC meter at full-scale deflection.
a. less than
b. approximately equal to
c. greater than
d. none of these
Q.17.Voltage stress is maximum in a cable at the surface of the
a. insulator
b. sheath
c. conductor
d. none of these
Q.18.The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
a. mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
b. mutual inductance between two coils only
c. self inductances of the two coils only
d. none of these
Q.19.The location of lightning arrestor is
a. away from the transformer
b. near the transformer
c. near the circuit breaker
d. none of these
Q.20.A conductor of length 1 meter moves at rt. angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 Wb/m2 with a velocity of 25 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be ----- volt.
a. 75
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100
Q.21.In electrical machines, laminated cores are used with a view to reducing
a. eddy current loss
b. hysteresis loss
Q.22.A battery
a. always delivers power
b. always absorbs power
c. absorbs power when the internal resistance is non-zero but delivers power when the internal resistance is zero
d. can absorb or deliver power depending upon the circuit to which it is connected
Q.23.Decibel is a
a. unit of voltage
b. unit of power
c. ratio of power
d. none of these
Q.24.Deflection of pointer of a permanent-magnet moving-coil meter for fixed current is _______ flux density in the airgap between magnetic pole shoes and coil.
a. independent of
b. directly proportional to
c. inversely proportional to
d. none of these
Q.25.A moving-iron meter is useful for voltage measurement at _______frequencies.
a. high
b. low
c. very high
d. none of these
Q.26.A thermocouple instruments would be used to measure alternating current only?
a. low
b. very low
c. high
d. none of these
Q.27.Which of the following instruments will be used to measure alternating current only?
a. moving ? iron (attraction-types) ammeter
b. moving ? iron voltmeter
c. permanent-magnet type ammeter
d. induction-type ammeter
Q.28.A milliammeter can be used
a. only as an ammeter
b. as a voltmeter
c. both as voltmeter and ammeter
d. none of these
Q.29.To measure the e.m.f. of a Weston standard cell, one would use a/an
a. electrostatic voltmeter
b. hot-wire voltmeter
c. galvanometer
d. potentiometer?Answer
Q.30.Deflection sensitivity of deflecting plates of cathode ray tube ____ the distance between deflection pates.
a. is inversely proportional to
b. is directly proportional to
c. does not depend on
d. none of these
Q.31.Deflection sensitivity of deflecting plates of a cathode ray tube ___the accelerating anode (A3) voltage.
a. is inversely proportional to
b. is directly proportional to
c. does not depend on
d. none of these
Q.32.A moving ? coil instrument can be used to measure
a. direct current
b. alternating current
c. both direct current and alternating current
d. none of these
Q.33.The frequency stability of a crystal oscillator depends upon
a. tuned circuit
b. crystal
c. crystal as well as the tuned circuit
d. none of these
Q.34.Hay bridge is usually used for measuring
a. resistance
b. capacitance
c. inductance
d. none of these
Q.35.Schering bridge is used for measuring
a. capacitance
b. inductance
c. frequency
d. none of these
Q.36.The Wien?s bridge is particularly useful for measuring frequencies of _______value.
a. low
b. very high
c. high
d. very low
Q.37.Impedance relay is used to protect
a. line within a particular zone
b. line beyond a particular zone
c. the whole transmission system
d. none of these
Q.38.Buchholz relay is used in ______ protection.
a. line
b. generator
c. transformer
d. none of these
Q.39.Kirchhoff?s voltage law is not valid for a non-linear network.
a. True
b. False
Q.40.If a piece of metal wire is stretched, its resistance will increase.
a. True
b. False
Q.41.In mesh analysis of a network, all the mesh currents must necessarily be either clock-wise or anticlock-wise.
a. True
b. False
Q.42.An uncharged capacitor is connected across a charged one.There will flow an impulsive current through the circuit.
a. True
b. False
Q.43.If R, L and C denote resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively, the quantity RC has the same dimensions as that of R/L.
a. True
b. False
Q.44.If R, L and C denote resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively, then the quantity CR2 has the dimensions, of L.
a. True
b. False
Q.45.A battery will not cause any current to flow, when it is connected across a pure capacitor, in the steady state even if the capacitor value varies with time.
a. True
b. False
Q.46.When two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in series, the effective capacitance is C1+C2
a. True
b. False
Q.47.The flux linked with a coil of inductance l carrying a current i is ddt(Li).
a. True
b. False
Q.48.When one wants to connect two batteries in parallel to draw larger current than what can be supplied by one battery, it suffices to ensure that their e.m.f.s. are equal.
a. True
b. False
Q.49.An ideal battery can supply infinite current
a. True
b. False
Q.50.1 GHz means 100 Hz.
a. True
b. False
SAIL Mechanical Engineering Placement Papers
SAIL Mechanical Engineering
1. Pistons of Diesel engines are usually cooled by
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Lubricating oil (Ans)
(d) Fuel oil
2. When a hydrocarbon fuel burns in excess air, Orsat analysis of products of combustion will show
(a) CO, CO2 and N2 (Ans)
(b) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(c) CO2, N2, O2 and H2O
(d) CO2, N2 and O2
3. What will be the products of combustion shown by an Orsat analyzer when natural gas burns in deficit air ?
(a) CO2, O2 and N2
(b) CO2, CO and N2 (Ans)
(c) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(d) CO2, CO, N2 and O2
4. The energy produced by 4.5 tons of high grade coal is equivalent to the energy produced by
(a) 1 kg of Uranium
(b) 1 gram of Uranium (Ans)
(c) 100 grams of Uranium
(d) 10 grams of Uranium
5. Enriched Uranium is one in which
(a) Percentage of U235 has been artificially increased (Ans)
(b) Percentage of U238 has been artificially increased
(c) Percentage of U234 has been artificially increased
(d) Extra energy is pumped from outside
6. Which one o the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Fusion is the combination of heavy nuclei of elements resulting in the release of heat energy (Ans)
(b) Neutron bombardment is the most common and practiced method of initiation of reaction in fission materials
(c) When the multiplication factor is greater than 1, the chain reaction is uncontrollable
(d) The reactor produces a, ß, g and neutron radiations. Of all these g radiation is the most dangerous
7. The reflectivity in a reactor depends upon
(a) Geometry of the reflector
(b) Energy of neutrons
(c) Properties of reflector
(d) All of these (Ans)
8. Shielding in a nuclear power plant is done
(a) To protect against neutron and gamma rays (Ans)
(b) To absorb excess neutrons
(c) To slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
(d) To return the neutrons back into the core of the reactor
9. This substance has the minimum value of thermal conductivity
(a) Air (Ans)
(b) Water
(c) Plastic
(d) Rubber
10. Dimensionless number is represented by
(a) Biot number
(b) Fourier number (Ans)
(c) Euler number
(d) Gratez number
11. If the radius of any current carrying conductor is less than the critical radius, then the addition of electrical insulation will enable the wire to carry a higher current because
(a) The heat loss from the wire would decrease
(b) The heat loss from the wire would increase (Ans)
(c) The thermal resistance of the insulation is reduced
(d) The thermal resistance of the conductor is increased
12. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I List - I
(A) Number of Transfer Units 1. Regenerators
(B) Periodic flow heat exchangers 2. Fouling factor
(C) Phase change 3. A measure of heat exchanger size
(D) Deposition on heat exchanger 4. Condensers
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)
(d) 2 1 4 3
13. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to
(a) Accumulate vapours released
(b) Decrease pressure drop
(c) Regulate the flow (Ans)
(d) Avoid deformation of tubes due to thermal expansion
14. If the thermal conductivity of a material of wall varies as K0 (1 + at) then the temperature at the centre of the wall as compared to that n case of constant thermal conductivity will be
(a) More (Ans)
(b) Less
(c) Same
(d) Possible in all as above
15. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I List - I
(A) Stanton number 1. Natural convection
(B) Grashof number 2. Mass transfer
(C) Peclet number 3. Forced convection
(D) Schmidt number 4. Forced convection for small Pr.Number
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
16. In the film established along a vertical plate during condensation of any vapour over the plates, the temperature distribution curve is
(a) Concave upwards (Ans)
(b) Concave downwards
(c) Parabolic
(d) Straight line
17. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, cavities are used advantageously when the entire surface is exposed to
(a) Nucleate boiling
(b) Film boiling (Ans)
(c) Transition boiling
(d) Pool boiling
18. For a fluid flowing over a flat plate, the Nusselt number at a point 1.25 m from the leading edge is 100. If the thermal conductivity of the fluid is 0.025 W/mK, the coefficient of convective heat transfer is
(a) 2000 W/m2 K
(b) 2 W/m2 K (Ans)
(c) 5 * 10-4 W/m2 K
(d) 1.25 * 10-4 W/m2 K
19. The unit of the following parameter is not m2/s :
(a) Thermal diffusivity
(b) Kinematic viscosity
(c) Mass diffusivity
(d) Dynamic viscosity (Ans)
20. Ice is very close to a
(a) Gray body (Ans)
(b) Black body
(c) White body
(d) Specular body
21. In a refrigeration plant, if the condenser temperature increase, the power input to the compressor will
(a) Increase (Ans)
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Be unpredictable
22. In gas cycle refrigeration system, an expander replaces the throttle valve of a vapour compression system, because
(a) The pressure drop obtained is not adequate
(b) The drop in temperature by throttling the gas is very small (Ans)
(c) It reduces the irreversibility in the system
(d) Heat loss is significantly decreased with the expander
23. In an aircraft refrigeration system, the pressure at the cooling turbine outlet is equal to
(a) Ambient pressure
(b) Cabin pressure (Ans)
(c) Compressor inlet pressure
(d) Evaporator pressure
24. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 120 kW, while the compressor of the system consumes a power of 30 kW. The COP of the system will be
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 3 (Ans)
(d) 4
25. Which of the following is not an essential component of refrigeration system, where refrigeration effect is produced by vaporization of refrigerant ?
(a) Compressor
(b) Condenser
(c) Evaporator
(d) Expansion device (Ans)
26. If the specific humidity of moist air remains the same but its dry bulb temperatures increases, its dew point temperature
(a) Remains the same (Ans)
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) May increase or decrease depending on its relative humidity
27. In an adiabatic saturation process of air
(a) The enthalpy remains constant (Ans)
(b) The temperature remains constant
(c) The absolute humidity remains constant
(d) The relative humidity remains constant
28. If air flows over a cooling coil, dehumidification of air will take place if the coil surface temperature is below the following of the entering air
(a) Wet bulb temperature
(b) Dry bulb temperature
(c) Dew point temperature (Ans)
(d) Adiabatic saturation temperature
29. In winter air-conditioning, the process is
(a) Heating, humidification and cooling
(b) Heating, humidification and heating (Ans)
(c) Heating, dehumidification and heating
(d) Cooling, dehumidification and heating
30. For a given dry bulb temperature, as the relative humidity decreases, the wet bulb temperature will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease (Ans)
(c) Be the same
(d) Depend on other factors
SAIL Mechanical enigneering questions and answers
Mechanical Engineering Objective Type Questions Engineering Mechanics
1. The unit of force in S.I. unit is
(a) kilogram
(b) newton (Ans)
(c) watt
(d) dyne
2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. unit is
(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) kilogram metre
(d) joule (Ans)
3. The unit of power in S.I. unit is
(a) newton metre
(b) watt (Ans)
(c) joule
(d) pascal per sec
4. Forces are called concurrent when their line
(a) one point (Ans)
(b) two point
(c) one plane
(d) different planes
5. A force is completely defined when we specify
(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) point of application
(d) all the above (Ans)
6. Which of the following is not the unit of distance ?
(a) angstrom
(b) light year
(c) micron
(d) milestone (Ans)
7. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?
(a) kw (kilo watt)
(b) hp (horse power)
(c) k cal/sec
(d) k cal/kg sec (Ans)
8. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ?
(a) k cal
(b) kg m (Ans)
(c) kwhr
(d) hp
9. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?
(a) kg/cm2
(b) ata
(c) atmosphere
(d) newton (Ans)
10. When trying to turn a key into lock, following is applied
(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar force
(c) lever
(d) couple (Ans)
11. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity ?
(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) acceleration
12. Which of the following is a vector quantities ?
(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) momentum (Ans)
(d) speed
13. Which of the following is not vector quantities ?
(a) weight (Ans)
(b) velocity
(c) force
(d) moment
14. The unit of moment of inertia of an area are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4 (Ans)
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
15. The unit of moment of inertia of mass are
(a) kg m2 (Ans)
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
16. Which of the following is not the unit of energy ?
(a) kgm
(b) watt (Ans)
(c) K cal
(d) kgm x (m/sec2)
17. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order ?
(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of the clinical tongs
(d) all of the above (Ans)
18. A pair of Smith's Tong's is an example of the lever of
(a) zeroth order
(b) first order
(c) second order (Ans)
(d) third order
19. Tension in a string is maximum at
(a) left support
(b) right support
(c) midway (Ans)
(d) quarter span
20. Which of the following is the unit of energy ?
(a) joules
(b) N-m
(c) electron-volt
(d) all the above (Ans)
21. The product of mass and velocity is known as
(a) work
(b) moment
(c) impulse
(d) momentum (Ans)
22. For a m/c to be self locking its efficiency should be
(a) 100%
(b) >67%
(c) >50% (Ans)
(d) more than 50%
23. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation
(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) linear momentum (Ans)
(d) angular momentum
24. Work is equal to
(a) force x velocity
(b) force x time
(c) force x distance (Ans)
(d) mass x acceleration
25. One N is equal to
(a) 107 dyne (Ans)
(b) 106 dyne
(c) 104 dyne
(d) 103 dyne
26. Rate of change of momentum is proportional to the
(a) displacement
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration (Ans)
(d) impressed force
27. The unit of momentum are same as of
(a) work
(b) energy
(c) force
(d) impluse (Ans)
SAIL model questions for mechanical engineering
1. Which one o the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Fusion is the combination of heavy nuclei of elements resulting in the release of heat energy (Ans)
(b) Neutron bombardment is the most common and practiced method of initiation of reaction in fission materials
(c) When the multiplication factor is greater than 1, the chain reaction is uncontrollable
(d) The reactor produces a, ß, g and neutron radiations. Of all these g radiation is the most dangerous
2. The reflectivity in a reactor depends upon
(a) Geometry of the reflector
(b) Energy of neutrons
(c) Properties of reflector
(d) All of these (Ans)
3. Shielding in a nuclear power plant is done
(a) To protect against neutron and gamma rays (Ans)
(b) To absorb excess neutrons
(c) To slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
(d) To return the neutrons back into the core of the reactor
4. This substance has the minimum value of thermal conductivity
(a) Air (Ans)
(b) Water
(c) Plastic
(d) Rubber
5.Dimensionless number is represented by
(a) Biot number
(b) Fourier number (Ans)
(c) Euler number
(d) Gratez number
6. If the radius of any current carrying conductor is less than the critical radius, then the addition of electrical insulation will enable the wire to carry a higher current because
(a) The heat loss from the wire would decrease
(b) The heat loss from the wire would increase (Ans)
(c) The thermal resistance of the insulation is reduced
(d) The thermal resistance of the conductor is increased
7. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I List - I
(A) Number of Transfer Units 1. Regenerators
(B) Periodic flow heat exchangers 2. Fouling factor
(C) Phase change 3. A measure of heat exchanger size
(D) Deposition on heat exchanger 4. Condensers
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)
(d) 2 1 4 3
8. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to
(a) Accumulate vapours released
(b) Decrease pressure drop
(c) Regulate the flow (Ans)
(d) Avoid deformation of tubes due to thermal expansion
9. If the thermal conductivity of a material of wall varies as K0 (1 + at) then the temperature at the centre of the wall as compared to that n case of constant thermal conductivity will be
(a) More (Ans)
(b) Less
(c) Same
(d) Possible in all as above
10. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I List - I
(A) Stanton number 1. Natural convection
(B) Grashof number 2. Mass transfer
(C) Peclet number 3. Forced convection
(D) Schmidt number 4. Forced convection for small Pr.Number
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
11. In the film established along a vertical plate during condensation of any vapour over the plates, the temperature distribution curve is
(a) Concave upwards (Ans)
(b) Concave downwards
(c) Parabolic
(d) Straight line
12. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, cavities are used advantageously when the entire surface is exposed to
(a) Nucleate boiling
(b) Film boiling (Ans)
(c) Transition boiling
(d) Pool boiling
13. For a fluid flowing over a flat plate, the Nusselt number at a point 1.25 m from the leading edge is 100. If the thermal conductivity of the fluid is 0.025 W/mK, the coefficient of convective heat transfer is
(a) 2000 W/m2 K
(b) 2 W/m2 K (Ans)
(c) 5 * 10-4 W/m2 K
(d) 1.25 * 10-4 W/m2 K
14. The unit of the following parameter is not m2/s :
(a) Thermal diffusivity
(b) Kinematic viscosity
(c) Mass diffusivity
(d) Dynamic viscosity (Ans)
15. Ice is very close to a
(a) Gray body (Ans)
(b) Black body
(c) White body
(d) Specular body
16. In a refrigeration plant, if the condenser temperature increase, the power input to the compressor will
(a) Increase (Ans)
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Be unpredictable
17. In gas cycle refrigeration system, an expander replaces the throttle valve of a vapour compression system, because
(a) The pressure drop obtained is not adequate
(b) The drop in temperature by throttling the gas is very small (Ans)
(c) It reduces the irreversibility in the system
(d) Heat loss is significantly decreased with the expander
18. In an aircraft refrigeration system, the pressure at the cooling turbine outlet is equal to
(a) Ambient pressure
(b) Cabin pressure (Ans)
(c) Compressor inlet pressure
(d) Evaporator pressure
19. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 120 kW, while the compressor of the system consumes a power of 30 kW. The COP of the system will be
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 3 (Ans)
(d) 4
20. Which of the following is not an essential component of refrigeration system, where refrigeration effect is produced by vaporization of refrigerant ?
(a) Compressor
(b) Condenser
(c) Evaporator
(d) Expansion device (Ans)
21. If the specific humidity of moist air remains the same but its dry bulb temperatures increases, its dew point temperature
(a) Remains the same (Ans)
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) May increase or decrease depending on its relative humidity
22. In an adiabatic saturation process of air
(a) The enthalpy remains constant (Ans)
(b) The temperature remains constant
(c) The absolute humidity remains constant
(d) The relative humidity remains constant
23. If air flows over a cooling coil, dehumidification of air will take place if the coil surface temperature is below the following of the entering air
(a) Wet bulb temperature
(b) Dry bulb temperature
(c) Dew point temperature (Ans)
(d) Adiabatic saturation temperature
24. In winter air-conditioning, the process is
(a) Heating, humidification and cooling
(b) Heating, humidification and heating (Ans)
(c) Heating, dehumidification and heating
(d) Cooling, dehumidification and heating
25. For a given dry bulb temperature, as the relative humidity decreases, the wet bulb temperature will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease (Ans)
(c) Be the same
(d) Depend on other factors
SAIL Mechanical Engineering Placement Papers
SAIL model questions for mechanical engineering
1. Which one of the following represents open thermodynamic system ?
(a) Manual ice cream freezer
(b) Centrifugal pump (Ans)
(c) Pressure cooker
(d) Bomb calorimeter
2. A thermodynamic system is considered to be an isolated one if
(a) Mass transfer and entropy change are zero
(b) Entropy change and energy transfer are zero
(c) Energy transfer and mass transfer are zero (Ans)
(d) Mass transfer and volume change are zero
3. Reduced pressure is
(a) Always less than atmospheric pressure
(b) Always unity
(c) An index of molecular position of a gas (Ans)
(d) Dimensionless
4. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List - I
(A) n = ¥
(B) n = 1.4
(C) n = 1.0
(D) n = 0
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 4 3 2 1 (Ans)
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
5. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I List - I
(A) Interchange of matter is not possible in a 1. Open system
(B) Any processes in which the system returns to its 2. System
original condition or state is called
(C) Interchange of matter is possible in a 3. Closed system
(D) The quantity of matter under consideration 4. Cycle
in thermodynamics is called
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2 (Ans)
6. A closed system is one in which
(a) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so (Ans)
(b) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) Neither mass nor energy cross the boundary of the system
(d) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
7. Work transfer between the system and the surroundings
(a) Is a point function
(b) Is always given by ? P dv
(c) is a function of pressure only
(d) Depends on the path followed by the system (Ans)
8. Air is being forced by the bicycle pump into a tyre against a pressure of 4.5 bars. A slow downward movement of the piston can be approximated as
(a) Isobaric process
(b) Adiabatic process
(c) Throttling process
(d) Isothermal process (Ans)
9. Isentropic flow is
(a) Irreversible adiabatic flow
(b) Reversible adiabatic flow (Ans)
(c) Ideal fluid flow
(d) Frictionless reversible flow
10. Increase in entropy of a system represents
(a) Increase in availability
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Decrease in pressure
(d) Degradation of energy (Ans)
11. The value of ?dQ/T for an irreversible cycle is
(a) Equal to zero
(b) Greater than zero (Ans)
(c) Less than zero
(d) Unity
12. Lowest COP is of vapour
(a) Compression cycle with superheated vapour
(b) Compression cycle with dry compression
(c) Compression cycle with wet compression
(d) Absorption cycle (Ans)
13. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle (Ans)
(d) Rankine cycle
14. The boundary layer separation occurs when
(a) Pressure gradient is positive
(b) Pressure gradient is zero
(c) Pressure gradient is negative (Ans)
(d) None of the above
15. For minimum work input in a two-stage compression process the intermediate pressure is the
(a) Arithmetic mean of suction and discharge pressures
(b) Logarithmic mean of suction and discharge pressures
(c) Geometric mean of suction and discharge pressures (Ans)
(d) Hyperbolic mean of suction and discharge pressures
16. Air injection in IC engine refers to injection of
(a) Air only
(b) Liquid fuel only
(c) Liquid fuel and air (Ans)
(d) Supercharging air
17. Supercharging is the process of
(a) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere (Ans)
(b) Providing forced cooling air
(c) Injection of compressed air to remove combustion products fully
(d) Raising exhaust pressure
18. Turbo prop-engine has the following additional feature over the turbojet
(a) Propeller (Ans)
(b) Diffuser
(c) Starting engine
(d) Turbine and combustion chamber
19. In the SI engine, highest concentration of unburned hydrocarbon is observed during
(a) Maximum load (Ans)
(b) Acceleration
(c) Deceleration
(d) Idling
20. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I List - I
(A) The rich mixture which provides maximum 1. Hydrocarbon emission
power gives large amounts of
(B) The condition like wall quenching and wall 2. NOx in exhaust gases
deposits result in
(C) Addition of tetraethyl lead is being eliminated 3. CO and hydrocarbons in exhaust gases
because of
(D) The normal compression ratio is dropped from 4. Adverse effects on exhaust emission
10.5 : 1 to 8 : 1
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 1 4 2 (Ans)
21. Pistons of Diesel engines are usually cooled by
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Lubricating oil (Ans)
(d) Fuel oil
22. When a hydrocarbon fuel burns in excess air, Orsat analysis of products of combustion will show
(a) CO, CO2 and N2 (Ans)
(b) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(c) CO2, N2, O2 and H2O
(d) CO2, N2 and O2
23. What will be the products of combustion shown by an Orsat analyzer when natural gas burns in deficit air ?
(a) CO2, O2 and N2
(b) CO2, CO and N2 (Ans)
(c) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(d) CO2, CO, N2 and O2
24. The energy produced by 4.5 tons of high grade coal is equivalent to the energy produced by
(a) 1 kg of Uranium
(b) 1 gram of Uranium (Ans)
(c) 100 grams of Uranium
(d) 10 grams of Uranium
25. Enriched Uranium is one in which
(a) Percentage of U235 has been artificially increased (Ans)
(b) Percentage of U238 has been artificially increased
(c) Percentage of U234 has been artificially increased
(d) Extra energy is pumped from outside
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SAIL Technical Papers Electronics-Engineering MT2010,2011,2012 question papers
1. Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is
A. 5.7 mH
B. 5.85 mH
C. 6 mH
D. 6.15 mH.
1.A. When two inductors are connected in series, the effective inductance is
Leff = L1 + L2± 2 m.
In this case, Leff = L1 + L2 - 2 M
= 2 + 4 - 2 × 0.15
= 5.7 mH.
2. Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the centre of the square will be
2.C. The plane midway between a and -a, i.e., the one passing through ABC and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is an equipotential plane. Hence the potential at B is the same as that of A or C, i.e., 1V.
3. Optocouplers combine
A. SITs and BJTs
B. IGBTs and MOSFETS
C. Power transformers and silicon transistor
D. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon phototransistor
3.D. In optocouplers the input signal is applied to the ILED and the output is takes from the phototransistor. These are used to isolate the gate signals from the power circuit.
4. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as
A. Gross error
B. Absolute error
C. Dynamic error
D. Relative error
4.C. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as dynamic error.
5. The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to :
A. linear time variant systems
B. non-linear time variant systems
C. linear time invariant systems
D. non-linear time invariant systems.
5.C. The Principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to linear time invariant systems.
6. In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0,
A. I / 0 devices have 8-bit addresses
B. I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions
C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices.
D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data.
6.D. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0 arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with I / 0 data.
7. The transistor shown in figure below, is biased
1. at cut-off
2.at saturation
3.well into saturation
4.well into cut-off
7.B. Neglecting VBE, IB = 10 / 100 = 0.1 A.
IC = 100 × 0.1 = 10 A. Drop over RL = 10 v.
Hence, VCE = 0 which is the condition for saturation.
8. In any transmitting antenna system, efficiency primarily depends upon
A. ohmic losses of various conductors
B. radiation resistance
C. ground conductivity
D. atmospheric conditions.
8.B. whereRr is radiation resistance and Rd is the total loss resistance of the antenna.
9. An instruction used to set the carry Flag in a computer can be classified as
A. data transfer
B. arithmetic
C. logical
D. program control
9.B. Arithmetic
10. The binary representation of 5.375 is
A. 111.1011
B. 101.1101
C. 101.011
D. 111.001
10.C. 101.001 = (4 + 0 + 1)
(0 + 0.25 + 0.125)
= 5.375
11. Dislocations in materials are
A. point defect
B. line defect
C. planer defect
D. surface defects.
11.B. Dislocations in materials are line defects.
12. In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of
A. integrator
B. differentiator
C. sweep credit
D. sync separator.
12.A. Integrator.
13. Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of
A. Ground waves
B. Sky waves
C. Surface waves
D. Space waves.
3.D. Frequency in the UHF Range propagate by means of space waves.
14. 200 MHz may be classified as
A. VHF
B. SHF
C. UHF
D. EHF
14.A. VHF.
15. A communication satellite is a repeater between
A. a transmitting station and a receiving station
B. a transmitting station and many receiving stations
C. many transmitting stations and many receiving stations
D. none of the above
15.C. a communication satellite is a repeater between many transmitting stations and many receiving stations.
16. The power in a series R-L-C circuit will be half of that at resonance when the magnitude of the current is equal to
A. V / 2R
B. V /
C. V /
16.C. V / Ö2 R
17. A point charge Q is located on the surface of a sphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The average electric field on the surface of the sphere will be
17.C. The point charge Q emanates a total electric displacement flux of Q. If a plane is passed through the point of location of charge and tangential to the sphere, half the flux is on one side and half on the other. The first half of flux is passing through the spherical surface. Thus the average displacement density has a direction opposite to that of n and the magnitude is
\ Average electric
field is :
Eav =
18. The efficiency of a chopper can be expected in the range
A. 50 to 55 percent
B. 65 to 72 percent
C. 82 to 87 percent
D. 92 to 99 percent
18.D. The efficiency of a practical chopper varies from 92 to 99 percent.
19. Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages?
A. Hot wire instrument
B. Electrostatic voltmeter
C. Moving coil voltmeter
19.B. Electrostatic voltmeter should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltage. D. Moving iron voltmeter.
20
Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode plot shown in the above figure :
20.A. it can easily be checked that the corresponding function is
G (s) = (1 - s) / (1 + s)
It is seen immediately that | G (jw) |
= 1 and hence gain is db = 0.
21. The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor,
Memory address in Hex Instruction
2000 LXI SP, 1000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D
2005 CALL 2050
2008 POP 2050
2009 HIT
As the completion of execution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains ………, and the stack pointer contains ……..
2050, OFFC
2251, OFFC
1025, OCCF
1025, OCCF
21.A. Memory address in hex Instruction Remarks
2000 LXI SP 1000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D We do not
2005 CALL 2025 know the
contents of
subroutine
at 2050.
2006 50
2007 20
2008 POP H
2009 HALT
At the completion of the execution of the program, the program counter of the 8085 contains 2050 and the stack pointer contains OFFC.
22. With reference to figure, value of VCE is
0 V
5 V
-5V
none of the above
23. The smallest change in sound intensity that can be detected
A. 1 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 10 dB
D. 20 dB.
23.B. Increase = 10 log10 P2 / P1 = 10 log102 = 10 × 0.3 = 3dB.
24. In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is
A. shorter than machine cycle time
B. larger than machine cycle time
C. exactly double the machine cycle time
D. exactly the same as the machine cycle time
24.D. Instruction cycle time is exactly the same as the machine cycle time.
25. The value of M in the end will be
Do 100 I = 1, 2
DO 200 J = 1, 2
M = M + I + J
200 CONTINUE
100 CONTINUE
STOP
END
10
11
12
14
25.C. Taking index of I = 1 and M = 0 computing the value of M with
J = 1, 2
J = 1
M = 0 + 1 + 1 = 2
J = 2
M = 2 + 1 + 2 = 4
Taking index of I = 2 and computing the value of M with J = 1, 2
J = 1
M = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8
J = 2
M = 1 + 2 + 2 = 12
26. Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. composition
D. all of the above.
26.A. Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by temperature.
27. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during
A. equalizing pulse
B. retrace interval between each line
C. retrace period of vertical line
D. none of the above.
27.B. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during retrace interval between each line
28. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is
A. Horizontal (linear)
B. vertical (linear)
C. Circular
D. Elliptical
28.B. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is vertical (linear).
29. Multicavity Klystron
A. is not a microwave device
B. is not a good low level amplifier because of noise
C. is not suitable to pulse operation
D. has a high repeller voltage to insure small transit time
29.A. Multicavity Klystron is not a good low level amplifier because of noise.
30. Transponder comprises of
A. Transmitter
B. Receiver
C. Antenna
D. a, b, c combined
30.D. Transponder comprises of transmitter, receiver and antenna.
31. Consider the following statements regarding the circuit shown in the given figure :
1. If the switch K is closed at a proper instant there will be no transient
2. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the frequency of the supply
3. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the circuit elements
4. There will always be a non-zero transient after the switch K is closed.
Of these statements :
1 alone is correct.
1 and 2 are correct.
1 and 3 are correct
4 alone is correct.
31.C. If the switch is closed at instant t = to, the complete expression for current will be
32. A circular ring carrying a uniformly distributed charge Q and a point charges -Q on the axis of the ring are shown in the fig. The magnitude of the dipole moment of the charge system is
Qd
Q R2 / d
Q
QR.
32.A. For points far away, the charge on the ring may be considered to be located be at the centre of the ring. Hence, the dipole moment becomes Qd.
33. Which of the following regulator provides output voltage polarity reversal without a transformer
A. Buck regulator
B. Boost regulator
C. Buck-boost regulator
D. Cuk regulator
33.C. a puck-boost regulator provides on output voltage which may be less than or greater than the input voltage. The output voltage polarity is opposite to that of the input voltage. It has high efficiency.
34. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on
A. RMS value of alternating current
B. voltage
C. average value of a.c. current
D. instantaneous value of a.c. current.
34.A. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on RMS value of alternating current.
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List-I List-II
(Response to a unit step input) (Location of poles in the s-plane)
1.One at the origin
B. 2.Two identical roots on the negative real axis.
C. 3.Two on the imaginary axis
D. 4.One on the position real axis.
Codes:
A B C D
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 3 4 1 2
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 4 3 2 1
36. Dual slope integration type Analog-to-Digital converters provide
A. higher speeds compared to all other types of A / D converters
B. very good accuracy without putting extreme requirements on component stability
C. poor rejection of power supply hums
D. better resolution compared to all other types of A / D converters for the same number of bits.
36.B. Dual slope integration type A to D converters are of slow speed and require more number of bits, than successive approximation ADC
37. In the figure given below, the collector current is
2 mA
200 mA
Almost zero
0.02 mA
37.C. Since emitter and base have same polarity and same potential, EBJ is not biased property. Hence, IB is zero and so is IC
.
38. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly
A. 250 - 300 MHz
B. 150 - 200 MHz
C. 90 - 105 MHz
D. 30 - 70 MHz
38.C. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly 90 - 105 MHz.
39. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to
A. 2 bytes
B. 1 byte
C. 4 bytes
D. 8 bytes
39.C. 4 bytes.
40. In electronic microcircuits, a resistor may be fabricated from constant-thickness layer of semiconductor material with conductor connections at the edges as shown below. If the resistor shown has resistance R, then a similar resistor 0.2 millimeter has a resistance of
4 R
2 R
R
R / 2
40.C. Resistance will be directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. Let t mm be the thickness of semi-conductor material so that the cross-sectional area for R ohm resistor is 0.1 × t sq. mm and length of semi - conductor material 0.1 mm.
For a 0.2 mm × 0.2 mm section, cross - sectional area = 0.2 × t sq. mm. Length = 0.2 mm
Hence, resistance,
41. Line imperfection in a crystal is called
A. Schottky defect
B. Frenkel defect
C. edge dislocation
D. Miller defect.
41.C. Line imperfection in a crystal is called edge dislocation.
42. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is
A. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter
B. to increase the bandwidth
C. to increase the power output
D. to increase the efficiency of transmission.
42.A. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter.
43. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This due to
A. Ionospheric reflection
B. Faraday rotation
C. Ducting
D. Ionospheric scatter.
43.C. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This is due to ducting.
44. The modes in a reflex Klystron
A. give the same frequency but different transit time
B. result from excessive transit time across the resonator gap
C. are caused by spurious frequency modulation
D. are just for theoretical considerations.
44.A. The modes in a reflex Klystron give the same frequency but different transit time.
45. The capacity of a channel is
A. number of digits used in coding
B. volume of information it can take
C. maximum rate of information transmission
D. bandwidth required for information
45.C. The capacity of a channel is maximum rate of information transmission
Fill in the Blanks with appropriate Words
1. ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the…….. of life oiled and running smoothly.
(a) river
(b) garden
(c) path
(d) machine-Answer
2. The bright colour of this shirt has………. away.
(a) gone
(b) disappeared
(c) faded-Answer
(d) paled
3. One major ……….between the Election Commission and the Union Government is related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where an election isheld.
(a) conflict-Answer
(b) pain
(c) irritant
(d) culprit
4.Even a ………glance will reveal the mystery
(a)crude
(b)cursory-Answer
(c) critical
(d) curious
5. His standard of living has……. since his son joined service.
(a) lifted
(b) increased
(c) risen-Answer
(d) heightened
6. The passengers were afraid but the captain …….them that there was no danger.
(a) instructed
(b) advised
(c) promised
(d) assured-Answer
7. His first failure did not…… him from making another attempt.
(a) interfere
(b) forbid
(c) frighten
(d) deter-Answer
8. No one will ……….. you for having been rude to your teacher.
(a) exclaim
(b) admire-Answer
(c) advise
(d) recommend
9.The doctor …….. the patient from taking certain medicines.
(a) banned
(b) prohibited-Answer
(c) prescribed
(d) proscribed
10.I ……..a car to be absolutely necessary these days.
(a) think
(b)regard
(c) consider-Answer
(d) agree
11. He didn’t have the……….. idea of villager’s problems.
(a) smallest
(b)finest
(c) faintest-Answer
(d) feeblest
12. This is a………… translation of the speech.
(a) verbatim
(b)verbal
(c) literal-Answer
(d) literary
13.The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence.
(a) discovered
(b) disclosed
(c)leaked out-Answer
(d) divulged
14. No man had a more ………..love for literature, or a higher respect for it, than
Samuel Johnson.
(a)arduous
(b) ardent-Answer
(c) animated
(d) adroit
15.I have often ………why he went to live abroad.
(a) puzzled
(b) wondered-Answer
(c) thought
(d) surprised
16.He lives near ……………a lonely of countryside.
(a) piece
(b) length
(c) stretch-Answer
(d) section
17. To nobody else did the story seem ………
(a) contingent
(b) credible-Answer
(c) credulous
(d) creditable
18. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state ……………..the findings
of the Commission.
(a) objected
(b) questioned
(c)rejected
(d) disputed-Answer
19.Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected …………….to block off the
streets.
(a) dykes
(b) barrages
(c) barricades-Answer
(d) barracks
20.When their examinations were over, the children gleefully……. the books they
had been reading.
(a) despised
(b) neglected-Answer
(c) shelve
(d)overthrow
SAIL Previous Years Solved Question Paper
SAIL Exam General Awareness questions
SAIL-Steel Authority of India Limited MT -Mnagement Trainee Exam previously asked questions with answers SAIL Selected questions with answers of previous years question papers
1. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Wheat
(b) Barley
(c) Jute
(d) Rapeseed
Ans. (c)
2. Blue Revolution is associated with
(a) Fish
(b) Milk
(c) flower
(d) Litmus
Ans. (a)
3. Study the following features of farming in India:
1. The farmers voluntarily pool their land together cultivation.
2. They divide the produce in proportion to the land pooled.
3. They forego their proprietary rights in the land.
4. They cannot withdraw their land from the pool after due notice and paying for the improvements.
Which of these features belong to cooperative farming?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following states is the main producer of Tendu Leaves?
(a) Orissa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (b)
5. The largest food crop of India is
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) maize
(d) gram
Ans. (b)
6. The maximum edible oil in India is produced from
(a) Rapeseed and mustard
(b) Til
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)
7. Tobacco cultivated in Gujarat is mostly used for the manufacture of
(a) beedi
(b) cigarette
(c) zarda
(d) snuff powder
Ans. (a)
8. India is the largest producer of
(a) tobacco
(b) sugar
(c) tea
(d) rice
Ans. (c)
9. Rubber plantations are located mostly in
(a) Kerala and Karnataka
(b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra and Kerala
(4) West Bengal and Kerala
Ans. (a)
10. Food grain production of India in million tones is nearest to the figure of
(a) 120
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 280
Ans. (c)
11. Self sufficiency in food, in the true sense of freedom from hunger, has not been achieved in India inspite of a more than three-fold rise in food grains production over 1950-1990. Which of the following are reason for it?
1. The Green Revolution has been restricted to small pockets of the country.
2. The cost of food is too high compared to the earnings of the poor.
3. Too much emphasis is laid on what and paddy compared to the coarse grains.
4. The gains of the green revolution have largely accrued to the cash crop rather than food crops.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) l, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
12. The state which is known as the ?Granary of India? is
(a) Kerala
(b) U.P
(c) Haryana
(d) Punjab
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the following states is the Leading producer of tobacco?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the following is the most important cash crop of West Bengal?
(a) Tea
(b) Jute
(c) Arecanut
(d) Coffee
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. Sowing season for kharif crop is
(a) February-March
(b) June -July
(c) August ?September
(d) October -December
Ans. (b)
16. Which one of the following crop combinations is characteristic of the upper Bhramaputra Valley?
(a) Rice, Jute, Oilseeds
(b) Rice, Pulses, Oilseeds
(c) Rice, Tea, Oilseeds
(d) Tea, Gram, Jute
Ans. (c)
17. Which irrigation canal irrigates the portion of Thar Desert?
(a) Indira Gandhi canal
(b) Nangal canal
(c) Western Yamuna canal
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
18. Which region in India is known as the ?Rice Bowl of India??
(a) North-east region
(b) Indo Gangetic plain
(c) Krishna -Godavari delta
(d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
19. The highest milk producing breed of goat in India is
(a) Barbari
(b) Beetal
(c) Jamnapari
(d) Black Bengal
Ans. (b)
20. Which state produces maximum wheat in the country?
(a) Punjab
(b) U.P
(c) M.P
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (b)
21. Which one of the following is not a part of the green revolution strategy?
(a) Irrigation
(b) Fertilizer
(c) High yielding varieties of seeds
(d) Crop insurance
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Linseed
(d) Barley
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following states ranks first in the production of cotton in the country?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) West Bengal
(c Punjab
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (d)
24. In India, the greatest variety of flowers is found in
(a) Assam
(b) Kerala
(c) U.P. hills
(d) Sikkim
Ans. (d)
25. Bangladesh has become a leading competitor of India in the world in the field of
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) tea
(d) rice
Ans. (b)
26. Which of the following is the largest livestock ( in number) in India?
(a) Sheep
(b) Goats
(c) Buffaloes
(d) Horses and Ponies
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
1. It is largely practised in Assam
2 It is referred to as ?slash and burn? technique
3 in it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)
28. The most widely consumed cereal in India is
(a) barley
(b) wheat
(c) rice
(d) sorghum
Ans. (c)
29. Terrace farming is widely practised in
(a) Malabar coast
(b) Mountain areas
(c) Deserts
(d) Deccan plateau
Ans. (b)
30. Which of the following oilseed crops is grown most extensively in India?
(a) Mustard
(b) Linseed
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)
31. Which of the following canals is not used for irrigation?
(a) Indira Gandhi Canal
(b) Buckingham Canal
(c) Western Yamuna Canal
(d) Upper Ganga Canal
Ans. (b)
32. In India, what percentage of area is covered by wheat growing regions?
(a) 10%
(b) 13.5%
(c) l7.8%
(d) 19.5%
Ans. (b)
33. The density of cattle population per 100 hectares of gross cropped area is the highest in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Haryana
Ans. (d)
34 The maximum density of canals lies in which of the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d)
35. Kerala is famous for the cultivation of
1. Coconut
2.Black pepper
3, Rubber
4. Groundnut
(a) l, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 ant 4
(c) l and 4
(d) l, 2, and 3
Ans. (d)
36. In the Northern Plains of India, rice is the main crop from Bengal to eastern Uttar Pradesh, whereas in western Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab, wheat is the main produce. This is because
(a) in the eastern region, fine clayey soil is avail able
(b) the western region remains cold during the winter season.
(c) the average rainfall decreases towards the west.
(d) the cultivation of rice requires cheap labour force
Ans. (b)
37. Jute is grown on a large scale in the delta of
(a) Ganges
(b) Sutlej
(c) Damodar
(d) Indus
Ans. (c)
38. Indian farmers insurance against crop failure is the process of one of the major methods of risk coverage by Indian farmers in
(a) Dry farming
(b) Share cropping
(c) Mixed cropping
(d) Relay cropping
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following statements:
I. The Green Revolution has been limited in its spatial coverage in India.
II. It has been confined mainly to Punjab, Haryana and western UttarPradesh.
Of these statements,
(a) both I and II are true.
(b) I is true but II is false.
(c) Both I and II are false.
(d) I is false but II is true.
Ans. (b)
40. India has attained self sufficiency in the production of
(a) coal
(b) iron
(c) nickel
(d) manganese
Ans. (d)
41. The largest coal deposit in India is in
(a) Godavari Valley
(b) Brahmani Valley
(c) Damodar Valley
(d) Satpura Valley
Ans. (c)
42. The headquarters of ONGC is situated at
(a) Bombay
(b) Delhi
(c) Dehradun
(d) Vadodara
Ans. (c)
43. Numaligarh in Assam is associated with which industry
(a) Oil refinery
(b) Automobile
(c) Cofee
(4) Cooperative farming
Ans. (a)
44. Mathura refinery receives crude oil from
(a) Cauvery basin
(b) Vadodara
(c) Kandla
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
45. Which of the following power systems provides the highest quantity of energy in India?
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Thermal
(d) Wind and tidal
Ans. (a)
46. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because
(a) it has extensive dry coast
(b) its coastal waters are very saline
(c) it has extensive shallow seas
(d) besides producing salt from saline water it has reserves of rock salt
Ans. (c)
47. Coking coal is found in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa
Ans. (c)
48. The new oil refinery in North India is going to be set up at
(a) Bhatinda
(b) Panipat
(c) Udaipur
(d) Mathura
(e) Udhampur
Ans. (b)
49. Manganese ore is abundantly found in
(a) Karnataka
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Orissa
Ans. (c)
50. Bombay High is famous for
(a) atomic reactor
(b) steel plant
(c) chemical industry
(d) petroleum deposits
Ans. ( d)
SAIL Placement Paper, Technical 2010|SAIL Previous Years Questions |SAIL Technical Questions
1.What is the main different between distribution transformer and power transformer?
2.Where manning formula used
3.what is the difference between item category and material type ?
4.When a square wave is applied to primary of a transformer then what will be output
5.wave form of secondary ?
6.what are the warehouse research? and process of warehouse research?
7.What is the rating of HT SUBSTATION and LT SUBSTATION?
8.which of the following rivers does not form any delta T ITS MOUTH?
Cauvery, Mahanadi, Godawari, Tapti
10.How much is the minimum marks for CIVIL judge interview in MPPSC
11.what are the uses of graphite electrode in various field.
12.what is the use of "fg" command ?
13.what are %TYPE and %ROWTYPE? what is the difference?
SAIL Placement Paper General Knowledge Questions
14.where does a body have least weight?
a) at the equator
b) at the poles
c) at earth's center
d) none of these
15. what is the millman's theorem?
16. what happens if a dc motor is fed an ac signal?
17. calculate electron mobility.
18. power MOSFET is voltage controlled or current controlled?
19. if you want a 640 k RAM, what specification should u specify in the drive?
20. max efficiency of a class a amplifier?
21.what r resistors in IC made of?
21 6 girls and 6 boys sitting randomly in a line. what probability of girls being
together?
22.what is the prob. of two friends having birthdays in same month?
23. (D^2 + 4)y= kx what if PI?
24. lim x-infinity sinx/x
25. express x/(x+1) as taylor's series
26.principle of jet engine
27. why hydraulic systems used in a aircrafts instead of electrical?
28. steel + ? = corrosion-resistant material?
29. what happens to speed of em wave as frequency increases?
30. which char. of em wave does not change when it travels from one mdium to
another?
31. circuit given. find attenuation in db.
32. circuit given. how much feedback?
33 (s-1)/(s+1) is high pass filter/ low pass filter?
34 fastest logic family among rtl, dtl, ttl?
35. in common emitter config. change in iC on changing vBE?
36. what happens if gate voltage of an ON scr is decreased?
37. fermi level change with temperature in n type semiconductor?
38 mosfet has threshold voltage 1v when n+ polysilicon is used in gate. what is
threshold voltage when polysilicon used is of n+ type?
39 simple ckts using zener diode.
40. what is the p+ substrate in an isolated pn junction ic connected to?
41. opamp circuit given. open loop gain=100. closed loop gain=?
42. which type of parameters( h/y/z) suitable in particular application?
43. given parallel LC ckt. find angle between currents in branches at resonance.
44. what is Q of series RLC ckt? (voltage gain/ admttance etc.)
45 resonant freq of parallel RLC ckt. ?
46. thin metal foil inserted between capacitor plates. foil connected to one plate.
change in capacitance?
47. ques on reflection of em wave at air= dielectric interface. dlc const=9
48 what is brewster's angle?
49. why microwave freq not used for ionospheric propagation?
50. uhf range?
51 freq range used in satellite comunication?
52. which ionospheric bands used for commercial purposes?
53 question on transmission line impedance matching?
54. flip- flop d, t 43. convert 32 k pulses to 1 hz pulses using decade counters etc
SAIL Placement Paper General Knowledge Questions
Q.1) Bharat Nirman Scheme of the UPA Government does not include :
(A) Rural Water Supply Project
(B) Irrigation Benefit Programme
(C) Rural Electrification
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan -ANS
Q.2) Which one of the following committee recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the
small scale sector in industry?
(A) Abid Hussain Committee-ANS
(B) Narasimhan Committee
(C) Nayak Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
Q.3) In the last one decade which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct
Investment inflows into India?
(A) Chemicals other than fertilizers
(B) Services sector
(C) Food Processing
(D) Telecommunication _ANS
Q.4) Who formulates the monetary policy in India?
(A) SEBI-ANS (B) RBI (C) Finance Ministry (D) Planning Commission
Q.5) The population of Uttar Pradesh has been rapidly growing during the last two decades because of :
(A) Increased literacy rate (B) Improvement in health and control of diseases (C) Improved agriculture (D) Rapid urbanization -Ans
Q.6) Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Educated unemployment increases with high rate of economic growth.
Reason (R) : It happens only when there is lack of professional education.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.7) Six more Public Sector Undertakings have been accorded status of miniratna by Government of India
(September 2006). Choose the one which is not included amongst them from the following :
(A) Bharat Sanchar Nigam
(B) Indian Telephone Industries
(C) Hindustan Latex
(D) Rashtriya Ispat
Q.8) Consider according to Buddhism :
Assertion (A) : There is no rebirth.
Reason (R) : There is no soul.
Now select your answer from the following code :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.9) Which one of the following propounded that destiny determines everything, man is powerless?
(A) Jainas (B) Buddhists (C) Ajivakas (D) Mimansakas
Q.10) Lord Buddha preached the following four noble truths. Put them in correct order using the code given
below :
(a) There is suffering.
(b) There is cessation of suffering.
(c) There is a path leading to the cessation of suffering.
(d) There is cause of suffering.
Codes :
(A) a, d, b, c
(B) a, d, c, b
(C) a, c, b, d
(D) a, b, d, c
Answers
1. (D)2. (A)3. (D)4. (B)5. (D) 6. (A)7. (B)8. (D)9. (C)10
Q.11) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya was the disciple of :
(A) Sheikh Alauddin Sabir
(B) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(C) Baba Farid
(D) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi
Q.12) Which one of the following was favoured by Nehru but not favoured by Gandhiji?
(A) Truth (B) Non-violence (C) Untouchability (D) Heavy industrialisation
Q.13) Consider :
Assertion (A) : Nehru had no regard for the Upanishads.
Reason (R) : His attitude was scientific.
Now select your answer from the following code :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.14) Ashtadhayi was written by :
(A) Vedavyas (B) Panini
(C) Shukadeva (D) Balmiki
Q.15) Adi Shankaracharya established four mathas. These mathas are situated at :
(A) Sringeri, Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayab
(B) Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayag, Kanchi
(C) Joshimath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri
(D) Puri, Sringeri, Dwarka, Varanasi
Q.16) Who was the founder of ‘Servants of India Society’?
(A) Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Justice Ranade
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q.17) The third Sangam was held at :
(A) Arrikkamedu (B) Ernakulam (C) Madurai (D) Tuticorin
Q.18) Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Satya Shodhak Samaj’?
(A) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar (B) Jyotiba Phule (C) Narayan Guru (D) Ramaswamy Naicker
Q.19) Cotton for textile was first cultivated in :
(A) Egypt (B) Mesopotamia (C) Central America (D) India
Q.20) Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Muhammad Tughlaq’s scheme of token currency was a failure.
Reason (R) : Muhammad Tughlaq had no proper control over the issuance of coins.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.21) By which name was Chanakya known in his childhood?
(A) Ajaya (B) Chanakya (C) Vishnugupta (D) Deogupta
Q.22) Rock cut architecture in Harapan culture context has been found at :
(A) Kalibangan (B) Dhaulabira (C) Kotdiji (D) Amri
Q.23) Where was the first Madarsa set up by the British in India?
(A) Madras (B) Bombay (C) Aligarh (D) Calcutta
Q.24) Who among the following Pakistani National was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian
Government?
(A) Liaqat Ali Khan
(B) M.A.Jinnah
(C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(D) Muhammad Iqbal
Q.25) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Lachchu Maharaj 1. Dhrupad
(b) Fayyaz Khan 2. Ghazal
(c) Sidheshwari Devi 3. Kathak
(d) Talat Mehmood 4. Thumri
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
ANSWERS
(A) 11. (C)12. (D)13. (D)14. (B)15. (C) 16. (D)17. (C)18. (B)19. (D)20. (A) 21. (C)22. (B)23. (D)24. (C)25. (B)
SAIL electronics and electrical questions
SAIL Aptitude ,General Awareness and Reasoning Questions with answers|SAIL Sample placement papers model question papers
SAIL electronics and electrical questions paper with answers
1.Resistance is measured in
a.henries
b.ohms
c.hertz
d.watts
Ans:B
2. A sine wave voltage is applied across an inductor. When the frequency of the voltage is decreased, the current
a.is increased
b.is decreased
c.does not change
d.momentarily goes to zero
Ans:a
3. The winding resistance of a coil can be increased by
a.increasing the number of turns
b.a thinner wire
c.changing the core material
d.increasing the number of turns or using thinner wire
Ans:D
4. When the current through an inductor is cut in half, the amount of energy stored in the electromagnetic field
a.is halved
b.quadruples
c.doubles
d.does not change
Ans:A
5. In the complex plane, the number 14 – j5 is located in the
a.first quadrant
b.second quadrant
c.third quadrant
d.fourth quadrant
Ans:D
6. When the frequency of the source voltage decreases, the impedance of a parallel RC circuit
a.Increases
b.decreases
c.does not change
d.does not change
Ans:A
7. In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by
a.45°
b.90°
c.120°
d.180°
Ans:C
8. A constant load power means a uniform conversion of
a.mechanical to electrical energy
b.electrical to mechanical energy
c.current to voltage
d.voltage to current
Ans:B
9. Polyphase generators produce simultaneous multiple sinusoidal voltages that are separated by
a.certain constant phase angles
b.certain constant frequencies
c.certain constant voltages
d.certain constant currents
Ans:a
10. Materials with lots of free electrons are called
a.Conductors
b.insulators
c.semiconductors
Ans:a
11. Electrons in the outer orbit are called
a.nuclei
b.valences
c.waves
d.shells
Ans:b
12. A multimeter measures
a.current
b.voltage
c.resistance
d.current, voltage, and resistance
Ans:d
13. A wiper is the sliding contact in a
a.Switch
b.photoconductive cell
c.thermistor
d.potentiometer
Ans:d
14. A circuit breaker is a
a Fuse
b.switch
c.resettable protective device
d.resistor
Ans:C
15. An ohmmeter is an instrument for measuring
a.current
b.voltage
c.resistance
d.wattage
Ans:c
16.The two windings of a transformer is
a.conductively linked.
b.inductively linked.
c.not linked at all.
d.electrically linked.
Ans:b
17. The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
a.at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
b.it will fail to start.
c.it will not develop high starting torque
d.all are true.
Ans:a
18. In a stepper motor the angular displacement
a.can be precisely controlled.
b.it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller
c.the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
d.it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines
Ans:a
19. The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
a.low at light load only.
b.low at heavy load only.
c.low at light and heavy load both.
d.low at rated load only.
Ans:a
20. The generation voltage is usually
a.between 11 KV and 33 KV.
b.between 132 KV and 400 KV.
c.between 400 KV and 700 KV.
d.None of the above.
Ans:a
21 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding Produces
a.damping torque.
beddy current torque.
c.torque aiding the developed torque
dno torque.
Ans:d
22. In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is
a.stationary w.r.t. armature.
b.rotating w.r.t. field.
c.stationary w.r.t. field.
d.rotating w.r.t. brushes.
Ans:c
23. In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
a.unity p.f.
b leading p.f.
c.lagging p.f.
d.zero p.f. leading.
Ans:b
24 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer
a.is in phase with the flux
b.lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
c.leads the flux by 90 degree.
d.is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Ans:c
25. The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit Through
a.slip rings.
b.commutator segments
c.solid connections
d.carbon brushes.
Ans:c
26 A hysteresis motor
a.is not a self-starting motor
b.is a constant speed motor
c.needs dc excitation
d.can not be run in reverse speed.
Ans:b
27. The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
a.a dc series motor.
b.a dc shunt motor.
c.an ac two-phase induction motor.
d.an ac series motor
Ans:b
28 For a given wirewound core, an increase in current through the coil
a.reverses the flux lines
b.decreases the flux density
c.increases the flux density
d.causes no change in flux density
Ans:c
29 When the current through the coil of an electromagnet reverses, the
a.direction of the magnetic field reverses
b.direction of the magnetic field remains unchanged
c.magnetic field expands
d.magnetic field collapses
Ans:a
30. The unit for permeability is
a Wb/At × m
b At/m
c At/Wb
d Wb
Ans:a