Railway Recruitment Board -Previous Questions Paper

RRB Technical,General Awareness and Technical Qquestions Railway Recruitment Board -Previous Questions Paper - I with Answers, Solutions RRB Previous Years General Awareness Questions Q.1. Which of the following is not a bone in the human body? (a) Sternum (b) Humerus (c) Pericardium (d) Tibia Ans. c Q.2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of (a) two (b) three (c) five (d) eight Ans. a Q3. Duodenum is situated (a) at the uppermost part of the small intestine (b) near the lungs (c) in the brain (d) at the tail end of the intestine Ans. a Q.4. The heart is covered by a membrane called (a) Epidermis (b) Dermis (c) Epicardium (d) Pericardium Ans. d Q.5. About ??..of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood. (a) 99% (b) 70% (c) 5% (d) 1% Ans. d Q.6. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This ?error? refers to (a) hormonal overproduction (b) non disjunction (c) atrophy of endocrine glands (d) inherited lack of an enzyme Ans. c Q.7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by (a) the extremely low pressure of venous blood (b) valves (c) movements in the surrounding muscles (d) the narrowing down of the lumen of veins by the contraction of the muscle layer comprising their walls Ans. b Q.8. Identical twins arise when two (a) cells develop independently from the same zygote (b) gametes develop independently (c) sperms develop independently (d) ova develop independently Ans. a Q.9. Element that is not found in blood is (a) iron (b) copper (c) chromium (d) magnesium Ans. c Q.10. Scratching eases itching because (a) it kills germs. (b) it suppresses the production of enzymes which cause itching, (c) it removes the outer dust in the skin. (d) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals. Ans. d Q.11. The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is? (a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Thymus (d) Adrenal Ans. c Q.12. A human sperm may contain ? 1. X-chromosome 2. Y-chromosome 3. XY-chromosome (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c)1 and 2 (d) l,2 and 3 Ans. c Q.13. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs of human body? (a) Radius (b) Tibia (c) Femur (d) Fibula Ans. a Q.14. Bleeding from artery is characterized by which of the following? 1. Blood is red. 2. Blood is purple. 3. Bleeding is continuous. 4. Bleeding is intermittent. (a) 1 and3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 Ans. b Q.15. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ? (a) Centriole (b) Molar tooth (c) Appendix (d) Diaphragm Ans. d Q.16. Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint? (a) Humenis and radius (b) Carpals (c) Hip girdle and femur (d) Skull & neck verterbrae Ans. b Q.17. Pancreas secretes hormones which help in (a) blood clotting (b) production of antibodies (c) growth of body (d) keeping sugar balance in body Ans. d Q.18. S-A node of mammalian heart is known as (a) Autoregulator (b) Pace-maker (c) Time controller (d) Beat regulator Ans. b Q.19. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure: 1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel. 2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases, 3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries. 4. It is usually lower in women than in men. Of these, the correct ones are (a) 1 and 4 (b) l, 2and 3 (c) 2,3 and 4 (d) l,2,3 and 4 Ans. d Q.20. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is? (a) ACTH (b) Leutinizing hormone (c) Adrenalin (d) Lactogenic hormone Q.21. What is the correct sequence of the following in heart attack? 1. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel 2. ?Plaque? from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol 3. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen 4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries (a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 2,4, 1,3 (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 4, 2, 1 3 Ans. b Q.22. Bile juice is secreted by (a) Pancreas (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Gall bladder Ans. b Q.23. Veins differ from arteries in having (a) thinner walls (b) strong walls (c) narrower lumen (d) valves to control direction of flow Ans. d Q.24. What is the main function of insulin in the human body? (a) To maintain blood pressure (b) To help in digestion of food (c) To control the level of sugar in the body (d) To check the level of iodine in the body Ans. c Q.25. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is (a) pepsin (b) tiypsin (c) ptyalin (d) maltoseAns. a Q.26. The blood pressure is the pressure of blood in (a) arteries (b) veins (c) auricles (d) ventricles Ans. a Q.27. The total number of bones in human skull are (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 30 (d) 32 Ans. c 28. Which of the following countries is a land locked country in south America? a. Ecuador b. Peru c. Uruguay d. BoliviaAns : d 29. Canary Islands belongs to a. Norway b. Spain c. New Zealand d. PortugalAns : b 30. Titan is the largest natural satellite of planet a. Mercury b. Venus c. Saturn d. Neptune Ans : c 31. Which of the following planets rotates clock wise? a. Pluto b. Jupiter c. Venus d. Mercury Ans : c 32. A difference of 1 degree in longitude at the Equator is equivalent to nearly a. 101 km b. 111 km c. 121 km d. 125 km Ans : b 33. The earliest known Indian script is a. Mori b. Devanagari c. Brahmi d. Kharosti Ans : c 34 How many times the preamble was amended a. once b. twice c. thrice d. four timesAns : a 35. The term socialist was added in the Preamble by the?amendment a. 40th b. 42nd c. 44th d. 49th Ans : b 36 The state with the lowest population in India is a. Goa b. Tripura c. Mizoram d. Sikkim Ans : d 37. Which person or organisation received the Nobel Prize three times so far? a. Medame Curie b. Linus Pauling c. Alexender Flemming d. International Committee of the Redcross Ans : d 38. The Finance Commission is appointed for every? year a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 Ans : c 39. Under which five year plan did agriculture show a negative growth? a. 1st plan b. 2nd plan c. 3rd plan d. 4th plan Ans : c 40. Who is the founder of the Capital city of Agra? a. Akbar b. Babar c. Sikinder Lodi d. Mubarak Shah Sayyad Ans: c 41. The first tide generated electricity project was established at a. Vizhinjam, Kerala b. Mangalore, Karnataka c. Paradeep, Orissa d. Vishakapattanam Ans : a 42. National Institute of Oceanography is located in : a. Calcutta b. Chennai c. Mangalore d. Panaji Ans : d 43. The 2004 Olympics were held in : a. Bangkok b. Rome c. Athens d. Nagasaki Ans : c 44. Who headed the committee appointed on Kargil War ? a. Gen. V. P. Malik b. Gen. S. K. Sinha c. K. Subramanyam d. K. C. Panth Ans : c 45. The C. K. Nayudu Trophy is related to the sport of a. cricket b. Hockey c. Football d. Chess Ans : a 46. New York is situated on the river a. Hudson b. Thames c. Danube d. Tigris Ans : a 47. ?The Woman of the Millennium? selected by the British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) is a. Margaret Thacher b. Hillary Clinton c. Chandrika Kumaratunga d. Indira Gandhi Ans : d 48. The General Assembly of United Nations meets a. Once a year b. twice a year c. thrice a year d. Once in five years Ans : a 49. The ?Common Wealth Games 2002? will be held in a. Toranto b. Manchester c. Tokyo d. Canberra Ans : b Railway Recruitment Boards's General Awareness Questions 50. All India Radio commenced operations in a. 1926 b. 1936 c. 1945 d. 1947 Ans : b 51. The ?Killer Instinct? is written by a. Sulakshan Mohan b. M.K.Santanam c. O.P.Sabharwal d. Subash Jain Ans : c 52. The Secretary-General of UN is appointed by the a. Security Council b. Trusteeship Council c. General Assembly d. World Bank Ans : c 53. Postal Voting is other wise called: a. external voting b. secret voting c. plural voting d. proxy voting Ans : d 54. The Common Wealth of Independent states (CIS) consists of?.republica? a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 13 Ans : c 55. Which of the following harbours is considered as the world?s finest natural harbour? a. Sydney harbour b. Toronto harbour c. New Jersy harbour d. Singapore harbour Ans : a 56. Who invented Radar? a. Henrey Backquerel b. Max Planck c. Robert Watson Watt d. Humphrey Davy Ans : c 57. Sandal Wood trees are mostly found in? a. Trophical Evergreen Forests b. Tropical most Decidous c. Alpine forests d. Trophical Thorn Forests Ans : d 31. The first country to legalise medically assisted suicide is a. Switzerland b. New Zealand c. USA d. Netherlands Ans : d 58. India?s newsprint industry is mainly located in a. Indore b. Dehradun c. Nepanagar d. Nagpur Ans : c 59 The tomb of Babur is at a. Kabul b. Lahore c. Multan d. Larkhana Ans : a 60. The joint session of the two houses is presided by a. the speaker b. the president c. chairman of Rajyasabha d. none of these Ans : a 61. The Gandhara school of Art was influenced most by the a. Greeks b. Shakas c. persians d. Kushans Ans : a 62. The Simon Commission was appointed in a. 1927 b. 1928 c. 1929 d. 1930 Ans : c 63. Sikkim became a full fledged state of the Indian Union, in the year ? a. 1972 b. 1973 c. 1974 d. 1975 Ans : d 64. Who is the founder of Mahabalipuram ? a. Rajaraja Chola b. Mahendra Varman c. Narsimha Varman d. Narsimha Chola Ans : c 65. The 189th member of United Nations is a. Palau b. Tuvalu c. Soloman Islands d. Nauru Ans : b 66. When was Burma separated from India a. 1947 b. 1942 c. 1937 c. 1932 Ans : c 67. Which of the following country has more than 55,000 lakes? a. Poland b. Denmark c. Finland d. Norway Ans : c 68. Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans? (a) Paancreas (b) Thyroid (c) Adrenal (d) Pituitary Ans. d 69 Oxygen is transported to every cell of the human body by? (a) red blood cells (b) blood platelets (c) white blood cells (d) hormones Ans. a 70 Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection? (a) Plasma (b) Blood Platelets (c) Haemoglobin (d) White Blood Corpuscles Ans. d 71 The normal temperature of the human body is (a) 90 F (b) 98 F (c) 98.4 F (d) 96.4 F Ans. c 72 .If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering from (a) myopia (b) hypermetropia (c) astigmatism (d) None of these Ans. d 73 The blood pressure values of four persons are given below: 1. Mrs.X-90/60 2. Mr.X-160/120 3. Mr. Y-120/80 4. Mrs.Y-140/l00 Who among the following has normal blood pressure? (a) Mrs. Y (b) Mr. X (c) Mrs. X (d) Mr. Y Ans. d 74. In the case of a ?Test-tube baby?? (a) fertilization takes place inside the test tube. (b) development of the baby takes place inside the test tube. (c) fertilization takes place outside the mother body. (d) unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube. Ans. c 75. Pituitary gland is present (a) below the brain (b) above the brain (c) inside the brain (d) nowhere near the brainAns. a 76 Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in human body? (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Spleen (d) Lungs Ans. d Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body? (a) Eye (b) Ear (c) Nose (d) Heart Ans. a Q.38. What is Funny Bone? (a) A muscle (b) A nerve (c) A bone (d) A blood vessel Ans. b Q.39. Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because? (a) their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose. (b) they have a many ? chambered stomach. (c) they have efficient grinding molars. (d) they produce an enzyme cellulose which can digest cellulose. Ans. a Q.40. Which of the following when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children? (a) Glycerol (b) Xylidine (c) Thalidomide (d) None of these Ans. c Q.41. The diploid number of chromosomes in human body is ? (a) 24 (b) 40 (c) 46 (d) 48 Ans. c Q.42. The largest cell in the human body is (a) Nerve cell (b) Muscle cell (c) Liver cell (d) Kidney cell Ans. a Q.43. Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of (a) moss and fungi (b) bacteria and fungi (c) algae and fungi (d) None of these Ans. c Q.44. Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into (a) 22 orders (b) 26 orders (c) 29 orders (d) 32 orders Ans. c Q.45. Which of the following statements is true for planktons? (a) They live on the surface of lake water. (b) They live on the bottom of lakes. (c) They live on the plants growing in water. (d) They live in the water column. Ans. b Q.46. Which of the following has the smallest egg? (a) Ostrich (b) Humming bird (c) Pigeon (d) Homo sapiens Ans. c Q.47. The population of which of the following is maximum on the earth? (a) Reptiles (b) Fishes (c) Birds (d) Beetles Ans. d Q.48. Poison glands of snakes are homologous to (a) stings of rays (b) salivary glands of vertebrates (c) electric organs of fishes (d) sebaccous glands of mammals Ans. b Q.49. The phylum chordata is characterized by the presence of (a) spinal cord (b) notochord (c) nerve chord (d) None of these Ans. d Q.50. Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants? (a) Growth of lateral buds (b) Cell division (c) Root initiation (d) Development of fleshy fruits Ans. c 51. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ? (A) Muktasar (B) Ludhiana (C) Patiala (D) Chandigarh Ans : (D) 52. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ? (A) Heat is absorbed B) Heat is released (C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged (D) None of these Ans : (A) 53. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ? (A) Zenon (B) Argon (C) Helium (D) Chlorine Ans : (D) 54. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ? (A) Solid (B) Gas (C) Liquid (D) None of these Ans : (B) 55. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ? (A) 30°C (B) 27°C (C) 300°C (D) None of these Ans : (B) 56. First Youth Olympic games will be held in? (A) Japan (B) China (C) North Korea (D) Singapore Ans : (D) 57. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ? (A) Mysore (B) Kanchipuram (C) Madurai (D) Delhi Ans : (C) 58. Tripitik is the scripture of? (A) Jain religion (B) Hindu religion (C) Buddhishtha religion (D) Muslim religion Ans : (C) 59. Who is the author of ?Adhe-Adhure? ? (A) Mohan Rakesh (B) Prem Chand (C) Nirala (D) Pant Ans : (A) 60. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included fundamental duties into the Constitution ? (A) 42nd (B) 43rd (C) 44th (D) 39th Ans : (A) 61. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ? (A) Delhi (B) Anand (C) Ahmedabad (D) Mysore Ans : (D) 62. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ? (A) Nonviolence (B) Violence (C) Triratna (D) Truth Ans : (A) 63. Light-year measures which of the following ? (A) Intensity of light (B) Mass (C) Time (D) Distance Ans : (D) 64. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ? (A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Ethylene (D) Acetylene Ans : (C) 65. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ? (A) Aravind Ghosh (B) P. C. Banerjee (C) Bipin Chandra Paul (D) Chandrashekhar Azad Ans : (A) 66. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ? (A) Humayun (B) Akbar (C) Shahjahan (D) Jahangir Ans : (D) 67. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in organic compounds ? (A) Phosphorus (B) Sulphur (C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 68?71) Find the correct meanings of the words given below : 68. EWE (A) Calf (B) Female sheep (C) Deer (D) None of these Ans : (B) 69. Buffalo (A) Calf (B) Baby box (C) Baby bison (D) Baby cow Ans : (C) 70. Veneration? (A) Esteem (B) High respect (C) Devotion (D) Worship Ans : (B) 71. Vicious? (A) Remorseless (B) Ferocious (C) Kind (D) Wicked Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 72?25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in meaning to the words in question : 72. Bizarre (A) Colourful (B) Odd (C) Insipid (D) Smart Ans : (B) 73. Innuendo (A) Narration (B) Insinuation (C) Insist (D) Insutale Ans : (B) 74. Salutary (A) Welcome (B) Discharge (C) Promoting (D) Remove Ans : (C) 75. Fictile (A) Fiction (B) Moulded (C) Fictitious (D) Smooth Ans : (B) 76. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as? (A) Soft ice (B) Dry ice (C) White ice (D) None of these Ans : (B) 77. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling point. The heat absorbed in the process is called? (A) Latent heat of vaporisation (B) Latent heat of fusion (C) Latent heat of sublimation (D) None of these Ans : (A) 78. Whether all the universities in the country should start online admission at all levels with immediate effect ? (i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily. (ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges and standing in queue. (A) Only argument (i) is correct (B) Only argument (ii) is correct (C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct (D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct Ans : (D) 79. The product ?Fair and Lovely? is related to? (A) WIPRO (B) I.T.C. (C) P & G (D) H.U.L. Ans : (D) 80. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ? (i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management. (ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or government?s, should adopt the same entrance standard. (A) Only argument (i) is correct (B) Only argument (ii) is correct (C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct (D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct Ans : (B) 81. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to? (A) Prime Minister (B) Chief Justice (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) Vice-President Ans : (D) 82. The metal extracted from Bauxite is? (A) Silver (B) Copper (C) Manganese (D) Aluminium Ans : (D) 83. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which? (A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around (B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around (C) There is low pressure all around (D) None of these Ans : (A) 84. The ?Ocean of Storms? is the name given to? (A) Atlantic Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) A waterless area on moon surface (D) None of these Ans : (C) 85. The capital of Pallavas was? (A) Arcot (B) Kanchi (C) Malkhed (D) Banavasi 86. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by LONELY PLANET? (A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Kerala (D) Uttarakhand Ans : (C) 87. How much water is contained in our body by mass ? (A) 65% (B) 70% (C) 60% (D) None of these Ans : (B) 88. What determines the sex of a child ? (A) Chromosomes of the father (B) Chromosomes of the mother (C) RH factor of the parents (D) Blood group of the father Ans : (A) 89. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Art are? (A) Indian and Roman (B) Indian and Egyptian (C) Greek and Roman (D) Indian and Greek Ans : (D) 90. ?Thinkpad? is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ? (A) HP (B) TCS (C) Infosys (D) IBM Ans : (D) 91. The first summit of SAARC was held at? (A) Kathmandu (B) Colombo (C) New Delhi (D) Dhaka Ans : (D) 92. The wire of flash bulb is made of? (A) Copper (B) Barium (C) Magnesium (D) Silver Ans : (C) 93. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed temperatures are called? (A) Isochors (B) Isothermals (C) V.T.P. Curves (D) Isocurves Ans : (B) 94. Project Tiger was launched in? (A) 1973 (B) 1976 (C) 1978 (D) 1983 Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 95 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement. 95. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alpha bet ? (A) None (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (B) 96. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set. Given set (23, 29, 31)? (A) (17, 21, 29) (B) (31, 37, 49) (C) (13, 15, 23) (D) (41, 43, 47) Ans : (D) Directions?What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ? 97. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 ??? (A) 2456415 (B) 2235675 (C) 2980565 (D) 2714985 Ans : (D) 98. If ?VEHEMENT? is written as ?VEHETNEM? then in that code how will you code ?MOURNFUL? ? (A) MOURLUFN (B) MOUNULFR (C) OURMNFUL (D) URNFULMO Ans : (A) 99. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ? (A) Gratify (B) Avarice (C) Accessory (D) Amend Ans : (C) RRB'Aptitude Questions 100. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ? (A) Praduman (B) Janaki (C) Shreshtha (D) Chhama Ans : (D) In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ? (A) 29 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 27 Ans : (B) 52. Which number is missing ? 45389, ?, 453, 34 (A) 34780 (B) 8354 (C) 4892 (D) 3478 Ans : (B) 53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end ? (A) A (B) C (C) B (D) K Ans : (D) 54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number ? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) More than three Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case. 55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ? (A) Ignorance (B) Knowledge (C) Author (D) Teacher Ans : (A) 56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ? (A) Signal (B) Vehicle (C) Motion (D) Lane Ans : (A) 57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses (A) Leave (B) Permit (C) Agency (D) Policy Ans : (D) 58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ? (A) 14 (B) 20 (C) 19 (D) 17 Ans : (B) 59. Pick out the odd in the following? (A) Ashok?Assam (B) Poonam?Punjab (C) Gyanendra?Gujarat (D) Anjana?Rajasthan Ans : (D) 60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ? (A) 45 (B) 37 (C) 50 (D) 40 Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) 61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ? (A) 13?5 (B) 4?5 (C) 16?5 (D) 7?5 Ans : (D) 62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555 (A) 606 (B) 646 (C) 586 (D) 716 Ans : (C) 63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is? (A) 32976 (B) 32679 (C) 32769 (D) None of these Ans : (A) 64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ??? sq cm. (A) 9 (B) 4 (C) 36 (D) 13 Ans : (C) 65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2 Ans : (B) 66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ??? cm. (A) 64 (B) 32 (C) 16 (D) 8 Ans : (D) 67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ? (A) 40 (B) 60 (C) 80 (D) 20 Ans : (D) 68. What is the meaning of beckoned ? (A) Summon by sign or gesture (B) Did not signal (C) Did not call (D) Invite Ans : (A) 69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find the number of coins of each value. (A) 500 (B) 400 (C) 700 (D) 600 Ans : (D) 70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ??? sq cm. (A) 120 (B) 12 (C) 20 (D) 240 Ans : (A) 71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is? (A) 41 (B) 51 (C) 61 (D) 42 Ans : (A) 72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if 1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ? (A) 700 (B) 650 (C) 720 (D) 750 Ans : (C) 73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the remainder is 58, the dividend is? (A) 40458 (B) 34058 (C) 43058 (D) 40358 Ans : (D) 74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37?50, find the no. of days he was absent? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4 Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word ? 75. Quixotic (A) Visionary (B) Whimsical (C) Realistic (D) Foolish Ans : (C) 76. Rabid (A) Mad (B) Normal (C) Furious (D) Fanatical Ans : (B) 77. Scurrilous (A) Inoffensive (B) Vulgar (C) Insulting (D) Coarse Ans : (A) 78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ? (A) 483 (B) 766 (C) 674 (D) 598 Ans : (D) 79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ? (A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 1 (D) 25 Ans : (C) 80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the following colours refracts the most ? (A) Blue (B) Red (C) Orange (D) Green Ans : (A) 81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460. What is that number ? (A) 109 (B) 112 (C) 111 (D) 115 Ans : (B) 82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59% of this number ? (A) 900 (B) 420 (C) 885 (D) None of these Ans : (C) 83. A?B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then, what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S ? T ? (A) Son (B) Daughter (C) Sister (D) Wife Ans : (C) 84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of the following dynasties ? (A) Rashtrakoot (B) Pallav (C) Pala (D) Chola Ans : (A) 85. But for the Surgeon?s skill, the patient ??? died. (A) may have (B) must have (C) should have (D) would have Ans : (D) 86. I want to see the Principal, ?? I have something to tell him urgently. (A) so (B) for (C) since (D) and Ans : (C) 87. I wasn?t really listening and didn?t ??? what he said. (A) catch (B) receive (C) accept (D) take Ans : (A) 88. The first division of Congress took place in? (A) Surat (B) Kolkata (C) Allahabad (D) Chennai Ans : (A) 89. What is ginger ? (A) Flower (B) Root (C) Stem (D) Leaf Ans : (B) 90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ? (A) Udaigiri (B) Dhauli (C) Balasore (D) Barabaki Ans : (B) 91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the following places of Orissa ? (A) Beharampur (B) Sunabeda (C) Koraput (D) Sambalpur Ans : (C) 1. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ? (A) Muktasar (B) Ludhiana (C) Patiala (D) Chandigarh Ans : (D) 2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ? (A) Heat is absorbed B) Heat is released (C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged (D) None of these Ans : (A) 3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ? (A) Zenon (B) Argon (C) Helium (D) Chlorine Ans : (D) 4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ? (A) Solid (B) Gas (C) Liquid (D) None of these Ans : (B) 5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ? (A) 30°C (B) 27°C (C) 300°C (D) None of these Ans : (B) 6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in? (A) Japan (B) China (C) North Korea (D) Singapore Ans : (D) 7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ? (A) Mysore (B) Kanchipuram (C) Madurai (D) Delhi Ans : (C) 8. Tripitik is the scripture of? (A) Jain religion (B) Hindu religion (C) Buddhishtha religion (D) Muslim religion Ans : (C) 9. Who is the author of ?Adhe-Adhure? ? (A) Mohan Rakesh (B) Prem Chand (C) Nirala (D) Pant Ans : (A) 10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included fundamental duties into the Constitution ? (A) 42nd (B) 43rd (C) 44th (D) 39th Ans : (A) 11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ? (A) Delhi (B) Anand (C) Ahmedabad (D) Mysore Ans : (D) 12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ? (A) Nonviolence (B) Violence (C) Triratna (D) Truth Ans : (A) 13. Light-year measures which of the following ? (A) Intensity of light (B) Mass (C) Time (D) Distance Ans : (D) 14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ? (A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Ethylene (D) Acetylene Ans : (C) 15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ? (A) Aravind Ghosh (B) P. C. Banerjee (C) Bipin Chandra Paul (D) Chandrashekhar Azad Ans : (A) 16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ? (A) Humayun (B) Akbar (C) Shahjahan (D) Jahangir Ans : (D) 17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in organic compounds ? (A) Phosphorus (B) Sulphur (C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 18?21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below : 18. EWE (A) Calf (B) Female sheep (C) Deer (D) None of these Ans : (B) 19. Buffalo (A) Calf (B) Baby box (C) Baby bison (D) Baby cow Ans : (C) 20. Veneration? (A) Esteem (B) High respect (C) Devotion (D) Worship Ans : (B) 21. Vicious? (A) Remorseless (B) Ferocious (C) Kind (D) Wicked Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 22?25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in meaning to the words in question : 22. Bizarre (A) Colourful (B) Odd (C) Insipid (D) Smart Ans : (B) 23. Innuendo (A) Narration (B) Insinuation (C) Insist (D) Insutale Ans : (B) 24. Salutary (A) Welcome (B) Discharge (C) Promoting (D) Remove Ans : (C) 25. Fictile (A) Fiction (B) Moulded (C) Fictitious (D) Smooth Ans : (B) 26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as? (A) Soft ice (B) Dry ice (C) White ice (D) None of these Ans : (B) 27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling point. The heat absorbed in the process is called? (A) Latent heat of vaporisation (B) Latent heat of fusion (C) Latent heat of sublimation (D) None of these Ans : (A) 28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online admission at all levels with immediate effect ? (i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily. (ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges and standing in queue. (A) Only argument (i) is correct (B) Only argument (ii) is correct (C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct (D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct Ans : (D) 29. The product ?Fair and Lovely? is related to? (A) WIPRO (B) I.T.C. (C) P & G (D) H.U.L. Ans : (D) 30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ? (i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management. (ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or government?s, should adopt the same entrance standard. (A) Only argument (i) is correct (B) Only argument (ii) is correct (C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct (D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct Ans : (B) 31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to? (A) Prime Minister (B) Chief Justice (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) Vice-President Ans : (D) 32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is? (A) Silver (B) Copper (C) Manganese (D) Aluminium Ans : (D) 33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which? (A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around (B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around (C) There is low pressure all around (D) None of these Ans : (A) 34. The ?Ocean of Storms? is the name given to? (A) Atlantic Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) A waterless area on moon surface (D) None of these Ans : (C) 35. The capital of Pallavas was? (A) Arcot (B) Kanchi (C) Malkhed (D) Banavasi Ans : (B) 36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by LONELY PLANET? (A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Kerala (D) Uttarakhand Ans : (C) 37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ? (A) 65% (B) 70% (C) 60% (D) None of these Ans : (B) 38. What determines the sex of a child ? (A) Chromosomes of the father (B) Chromosomes of the mother (C) RH factor of the parents (D) Blood group of the father Ans : (A) 39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Art are? (A) Indian and Roman (B) Indian and Egyptian (C) Greek and Roman (D) Indian and Greek Ans : (D) 40. ?Thinkpad? is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ? (A) HP (B) TCS (C) Infosys (D) IBM Ans : (D) 41. The first summit of SAARC was held at? (A) Kathmandu (B) Colombo (C) New Delhi (D) Dhaka Ans : (D) 42. The wire of flash bulb is made of? (A) Copper (B) Barium (C) Magnesium (D) Silver Ans : (C) 43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed temperatures are called? (A) Isochors (B) Isothermals (C) V.T.P. Curves (D) Isocurves Ans : (B) 44. Project Tiger was launched in? (A) 1973 (B) 1976 (C) 1978 (D) 1983 Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement. 45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alpha bet ? (A) None (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (B) 46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set. Given set (23, 29, 31)? (A) (17, 21, 29) (B) (31, 37, 49) (C) (13, 15, 23) (D) (41, 43, 47) Ans : (D) Directions?What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ? 47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 ??? (A) 2456415 (B) 2235675 (C) 2980565 (D) 2714985 Ans : (D) 48. If ?VEHEMENT? is written as ?VEHETNEM? then in that code how will you code ?MOURNFUL? ? (A) MOURLUFN (B) MOUNULFR (C) OURMNFUL (D) URNFULMO Ans : (A) 49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ? (A) Gratify (B) Avarice (C) Accessory (D) Amend Ans RRB Paper RRB Latest Questions and Answers A. Technical Questions 1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheelsin their proper routes are known as: (a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail Answer : C 2. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track. (a) inner faces (b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail (c) centre lines (d) outer faces Answer : A 3. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of: (a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15% Answer : B 4. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to: (a) Abrasion of rolling wheels (b) Heavy axle load (c) Constant brake application (d) Any or all of the above Answer : D 5. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as: (a) Oscillating motion (b) Lurching motion (c) Shutting motion (d) Vibration Answer : A 6. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is: (a) adhesion of wheels (b) resistance due to oscillations (c) flange resistance (d) air or wind resistance Answer : A 7. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as: (a) anchors (b) ballast (c) subgrade (d) chairs Answer : B 8. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting: (a) double headed rails (b) flat footed rails (c) bull headed rails (d) all above are correct Answer : B 9. The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called: (a) terminal (b) station (c) rail-head (d) base Answer : C 10. The good quality wood for sleeper is: (a) Deodar (b) Sheesham (c) Teak (d) Sal Answer : C 11. Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as: (a) 2 to 3 years (b) 12 to 15 years (c) 35 to 50 years (d) 5 to 8 years Answer : B 12.The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as: (a) Flare (b) Toe (c) Heel (d) Loop Answer : A 13.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as: (a) fastenings (b) sleepers (c) ballast (d) fish plate Answer : B 14. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is: (a) 78.6 mm (b) 136.5 mm (c) 66.7 mm (d) 70 mm Answer : B 15. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as: (a) Track pits (b) Inspection pits (c) Drop pits (d) Siding pits Answer : C 16. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is: (a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 10 (d) 1 in 15 Answer : B 17. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as: (a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing rails Answer : B 18. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as: (a) cropping (b) creeping (c) bulging (d) buckling Answer : D 19 . Integrated coach factory is located in: (a) Chennai (b) Bangalore (c) Jamshedpur (d) Mumbai Answer : A 20. C.T.C. stands for: (a) Critical Track Control (b) Critical Traffic Channeliser (c) Centralised Traffic Control (d) None of these Answer : C 21. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as: (a) Fish plate (b) Chair (c) Saddle plate (d) Bearing plate Answer : D 22. Generally the rail sections used in India is: (a) flat footed (b) double headed (c) bull headed (d) all above Answer : A 23. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called: (a) three ladder track (b) turn table (c) three throw switch (d) triangle Answer : B 24. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is: (a) 1.83 m (b) 1.52 m (c) 2.74 m (d) 1.676 m Answer : C 25. Creep is the ..... movement of rails. (a) longitudinal (b) diagonal (c) horizontal (d) vertical Answer : A 26. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is: (a) sand (b) Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above Answer : C 27. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of: (a) Type of rails (b) Spacing of the sleepers (c) Speed of trains (d) All of the above Answer : D 28. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means: (a) checking of subgrade (b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade (c) compaction and consolidation of earth work (d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees Answer : D 29. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as: (a) Rolling motion (b) Nosing motion (c) Lurching motion (d) Vibration Answer : B 30. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called: (a) rolling stock (b) railway (c) wagon (d) locomotive Answer : D 31. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as: (a) steel way (b) rails (c) railway (d) permanent way Answer : D 32. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of: (a) 10-15 kg/HP (b) 60-80 kg/HP (c) 20-30 kg/HP (d) 100-150 kg/HP Answer : B 33. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is: (a) Loose packing at joints (b) Defect in gauge and alignment (c) Defect in cross level joints (d) Any of the above Answer : D 34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called: (a) Permanent Way Inspector (b) Gangmate (c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector (d) None of these are correct Answer : C 35. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called: (a) Track gradient (b) Track slope (c) Super elevation (d) Horizontal gradient Answer : C 36. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as: (a) Tractive force (b) Load capacity (c) Gauge (d) Track modulus Answer : D 37. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called: (a) P.W.I (b) Keyman (c) Ganger (d) A.P.W.I Answer : C 38. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as: (a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail Answer : B 39. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is: (a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c) 11.8 m (d) 12.8 m Answer : D 40. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is: (a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm Answer : D 41. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be: (a) 250 to 300 mm (b) 200 to 250 mm (c) 150 to 200 mm (d) 150 mm Answer : B 42. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called: (a) lift (b) site distance (c) rail-head (d) lead Answer : D 43. Accidents can be avoided by adopting: (a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system (c) pilot guard system (d) A.T.C. system Answer : A 44. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called: (a) Wet joint (b) Water joint (c) Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint Answer : C B. Reasoning Questions 45. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten?s place and hundred?s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ? 479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 Answer : C 46 . P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ? (a) North (b) North-East (c) South (d) South-East Answer : A Directions(Qn. 47?51): In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set. 47. Given set : (4, 9, 18) (a) (8, 14, 22) (b) (10, 15, 25) (c) (6, 12, 23) (d) (12, 17, 26) Answer : D 48. Given set : (10, 14, 17) (a) (4, 11, 14) (b) (9, 12, 15) (c) (8, 13, 18) (d) (6, 9, 12) Answer : A 49. Given set : (7, 27, 55) (a) (21, 35, 52) (b) (18, 42, 65) (c) (16, 40, 72) (d) (13, 30, 58) Answer : C 50. Given set : (39, 28, 19) (a) (84, 67, 52) (b) (52, 25, 17) (c) (70, 49, 36) (d) (65, 45, 21) Answer : A 51. Given set : (246, 257, 358) (a) (233, 343, 345) (b) (273, 365, 367) (c) (143, 226, 237) (d) (145, 235, 325) Answer : A Directions(Qn. 52?5): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers as: (A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question (B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions; (C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question; (D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question. 52. In which direction is Mahatmaji?s statue facing ? I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city. II. The statue?s shadow falls towards East at 5 O?clock in the evening. Answer : C 53. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ? I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class. II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years. Answer : B 54. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ? I. A is taller than C. II. B is taller than C and D. Answer : C 55. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year? I. The month begins on Monday. II. The month ends on Wednesday. Answer : D 56. What is the total number of pages in this book ? I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book. II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book. Answer : C Directions(Qn. 57?61): Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related. 57. (1) All books are having pages. (2) All kings are having pages. (3) All kings are books. (4) Some heavy things are having pages. (5) Some heavy things are books. (6) Some books are heavy. (7) Some heavy things are having pages. (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 6, 1, 4 (c) 4, 6, 1 (d) 1, 5, 7 Answer : D 58. (1) No athletes are vegetarians. (2) All cricket players are athletes. (3) Some athletes play cricket. (4) Some cricket players are vegetarians. (5) No cricket player is a vegetarian. (6) All athletes are vegetarians. (a) 1, 2, 5 (b) 3, 4, 1 (c) 1, 5, 2 (d) 2, 5, 6 Answer : A 59. (1) All grandmothers cook well. (2) No man is a grandmother. (3) Some men do not cook well. (4) All those who cook well are men. (5) No one who cooks well is a man. (6) All those who cook well are grandmothers. (7) Some men are not grandmothers. (a) 2, 6, 5 (b) 2, 5, 6 (c) 1, 4, 2 (d) 6, 4, 7 Answer : B 60. (1) Looting is a crime. (2) Some crooked people are criminals. (3) All those involved in looting are criminals. (4) Some crooked people are involved in looting. (5) All criminals are looked down in society. (6) Some crooked people are not criminals. (a) 1, 4, 6 (b) 3, 6, 2 (c) 1, 2, 6 (d) 3, 4, 2 Answer : D 61. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life. (2) Some men are those who have patience. (3) No man is a woman. (4) All those who have patience are successful in life. (5) Some who are successful in life are men. (6) Some men are not those are successful in life. (a) 1, 3, 6 (b) 4, 2, 6 (c) 1, 5, 3 (d) 2, 4, 5 Answer : B Directions(Qn. 62?6): Read the following information for answering the questions that follow On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North. (i) B is 50 metres to the right of D. (ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B (iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D. (iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A. 62. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ? (a) 120 (b) 150 (c) 170 (d) 230 Answer : D 63. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ? (a) 53 (b) 78 (c) 92 (d) 120 Answer : C 64. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E Answer : A 65. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ? (a) North (b) West (c) South (d) East Answer : C Directions(Qn. 66?70): In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. 66. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI. Assumptions : I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season. II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI. III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest. (a) None is implicit (b) Only I and II are implicit (c) Only II and III are implicit (d) All are implicit Answer : D 67. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life. Assumptions : I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood. II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth. III.The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment. (a) Only I and II are implicit (b) Only III is implicit (c) Only I and III are implicit (d) None is implicit Answer : A 68. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day. Assumptions : I. The price of crude may increase due to less production. II. The demand of crude may remain same in future. III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries. (a) All are implicit (b) Only II and III are implicit (c) Only I and II are implicit (d) None is implicit Answer : C 69. Statement : ?We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.? ? an advertisement. Assumptions : I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement. II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers. III. People may come to see the product. (a) All are implicit (b) None is implicit (c) Only II and III are implicit (d) Only I and II are implicit Answer : A 70. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters. Assumptions : I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters. II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan. III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures. (a) All are implicit (b) None is implicit (c) Both II and III are implicit (d) Both I and II are implicit Answer : C Directions(Qn. 71?75): In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If both I and II follows. (d) Neither I nor II follows. 71. Statements : 1. All hands are machines. 2. All machines are wheels. Conclusions : I. All wheels are hands. II. All hands are wheels. Answer : B 72. Statements : 1. Some buds are leaves. 2. Some leaves are red. Conclusions : I. Some buds are red. II. Some leaves are not buds. Answer : B 73. Statements : 1. Some stones are shells. 2. All shells are pearls. Conclusions : I. Some stones are pearls. II. All pearls are shells. Answer : A 74. Statements : 1. Brown is red and blue is green. 2. Green is pink and yellow is red. Conclusions : I. Yellow is brown. II. Pink is blue. Answer : C 75. Statements : 1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either. 2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles. Conclusions : I. Some merchants have only tricycles. II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles. Answer : D Directions(Qn. 76?78) : A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement. Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689 Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689 Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689 Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689 Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689 Step IV is the last step of input. 76. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ?333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799? ? (a) II (b) III (c) IV (d) I Answer : B 77. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ? Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857 (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6 Answer : A 78. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ? Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358 (a) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358 (b) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358 (c) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358 (d) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358 Answer : C Directions(Qn. 79? 83): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it . (1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer. (2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist. (3) The Manager D is married to A. (4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer. (5) B is the mother of F and E. (6) There are two married couples in the family. (7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male. 79. What is the profession of E ? (a) Doctor (b) Engineer (c) Manager (d) Psychologist Answer : B 80. How is A related to E ? (a) Brother (b) Uncle (c) Father (d) Grandfather Answer : D 81. How many male numbers are there in the family ? (a) One (b) Three (c) Four (d) Two Answer : B 82. What is the profession of A ? (a) Doctor (b) Lawyer (c) Jeweller (d) Manager Answer : A 83. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ? (a) AB (b) AC (c) AD (d) AE Answer : C 84. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (a) Papaya (b) Mango (c) Jackfruit (d) Watermelon Answer : C 85. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ? (a) SPEAK : PZVKH (b) HUSKY : BPGFS (c) BRAIN : MRZIY (d) BREAK : PZVIY Answer : B 86. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ? (a) DJWR (b) EKXR (c) KQDX (d) AGTN Answer : A 87. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one. (a) GWOURV (b) LZKMSU (c) SFXPMG (d) JOEHNP Answer : C 88. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related. (a) Watt : Power (b) Ampere : Current (c) Pascal : Pressure (d) Radian : Degree Answer : D 89. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ? (a) ONLKI (b) OMKIG (c) OMJFA (d) OIGDC Answer : C 90. If the letters of the word ?PROTECTION? which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ? (a) E (b) O (c) T (d) I Answer : D 91. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ? (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9 Answer : C 92. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence. (1) Dissipate (2) Dissuade (3) Disseminate (4) Distract (5) Dissociate (6) Dissect (a) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 (b) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5 (c) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4 (d) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2 Answer : A C. General Knowledge Questions 92. Who is the chairman of 7th pay commission ? Answer : Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur 93. Where is the venue of 101st Indian science congress ? Answer : Jammu 95. 38th circus festival was celebrated at ? Answer : Monte-Carlo 96 . Who won the women?s double Portugal Open title 2014 ? Answer : Sania Mirza and Cara Black 97. Main Theme of 12th Five year Plan ?Faster, Sustainable & more inclusive growth". 98. India?s National Technology Day----------- 11 May. 99. who won World Snooker Championship title 2014 ? Answer : Mark Selby 100. Who is the new CEO of Microsoft ? Answer : Satya Nadella 101. Who is the new chairman of Microsoft ? Answer : John Thompson 102. Where is the headquarters of o.p.c.w organization for the prohibition of chemical weapons ? Answer: The Hague, Netherlands 103. Bocskai International Tournament is related to which game? Answer : Boxing 104. What is the birth place of Adolf Hitler Answer : Austria 105. Who is the German president, recently visited India ? Answer : Joachim Gauck 106. Who become the first women umpire in ICC Panel ? Answer : Kathy Cross 107. Which is the first Indian state to achieve over 100% sanitation ? Answer : Sikkim 108. Who launches National Mission on Libraries ? Answer : Pranab Mukherjee 109 . Who won the DSC prize 2014 ? Answer : Cyrus Mistry 110. Where is The third World Congress on Agro-forestry 2014 held? Answer : Delhi 111. Which country joined Euro zone as its 18th member ? Answer : Latvia joined as 18th member 112. Which high court banned the transfer of IAS, IPS and IFS officers till the re-composition of the Civil Services Board? Answer : Allahabad high court 113. South sudan president name? Answer : Salva Kiir Mayardit 114. Which space organisation has launched carbon observatory-2 ? Answer : NASA 115. Who is the chief guest of republic day parade 2014 of India ? Answer : Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe 116. Which is the fastest supercomputer in the world ? Answer : Tiahne-2 117 . India's 1st post office savings bank ATM inaugurated at which place ? Answer : Head Post Office in Thyagaraya Nagar , chennai 119 . India's 1st post office savings bank ATM inaugurated by ? Answer : P. Chidambaram (Union Finance Minister) 120. Where is the headquarters of WWF International ? Answer : Gland, Switzerland 121 . What is the full form for ANMI? Answer : Association of National Exchanges Members of India (ANMI) 122. What is the national game of Spain? Answer : bull fighting 123. In 1951, five year plan started in India. 124 . Head quarters of international maritime organisation? Answer : London 125. Who is the author of devdas? Answer : Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay RRB Paper Railway Exam Previous Year Question Paper Railway Engineering Exam Solved Questions: 1. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is: (a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm Ans : A 2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine? (a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box Ans : B 3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on: (a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents Ans : B 4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is: (a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m Ans : B 5. Generally the shape of fish plate is: (a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular Ans : B 6. The track capacity can be increased by: (a) Faster movement of trains on the track (b) By using more powerful engines (c) All the above (d) None of the above Ans : C 7. Detonating signals are used: (a) for noisy engines (b) during foggy and cloudy weather (c) for deaf drivers (d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only Ans : B 8. Wider gauge permits: (a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load (c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves Ans : C 9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called: (a) terminal station (b) flag station (c) way side station (d) junction station Ans : D 10. Points and crossings are provided for change of ....on permanent ways. (a) gauge (b) direction and gradient (c) direction (d) gradient Ans : C 11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as: (a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart (c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart Ans: C 12. The most common system of signaling in India is the ...... system. (a) automatic block (b) section clear system (c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system Ans : C 13. The feeder gauge .... is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc. (a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m Ans : A 14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called: (a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve (c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve Ans : B 15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called: (a) branch track (b) points and crossing (c) main or through track (d) all above Ans : C 16. An expansion gap of .... is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature. (a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm (c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm Ans : C 17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track: (a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt Ans : B 18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called: (a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient Ans : B 19. In locomotive ?hunting? is: (a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track (b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track (c) Motion after brakes have been applied (d) Combination of A and B above Ans : D 20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called: (a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails (c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails Ans : A 21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be: (a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m Ans : B 22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than: (a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m Ans : A 23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be: (a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm Ans : C 24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is: (a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM (c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM Ans : B 25. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called (a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient Ans : D 26. The latest system of signaling introduced is: (a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system (c) section clear system (d) automatic block system Ans : A 27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is: (a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400 Ans : D 28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called: (a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance (c) friction (d) Tractive resistance Ans : D 29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally: (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6 Ans : A 30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called: (a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway (c) Railway (d) Tube railway Ans : D RRB Placement Paper Previous Year Question Paper of Central Railways 1. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as: (a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail Ans:- B 2. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is: (a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c) 11.8 m (d) 12.8 m Ans:- D 3. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is: (a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm Ans:- D 4. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of: (a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15% Ans:- B 5. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to: (a) Abrasion of rolling wheels (b) Heavy axle load (c) Constant brake application (d) Any or all of the above Ans:- D 6. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as: (a) Oscillating motion (b) Lurching motion (c) Shutting motion (d) Vibration Ans:- A 7. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called: (a) Wet joint (b) Water joint (c) Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint Ans:- C 8. Accidents can be avoided by adopting: (a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system (c) pilot guard system (d) A.T.C. system Ans:-A 9. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called: (a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve (c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve Ans : B 10. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on: (a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents Ans : B 11. The track capacity can be increased by: (a) Faster movement of trains on the track (b) By using more powerful engines (c) All the above (d) None of the above Ans : C 12. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called: (a) terminal station (b) flag station (c) way side station (d) junction station Ans : D 13. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is: (a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm Ans : A 14. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as: (a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart (c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart Ans: C 15. The most common system of signaling in India is the ...... system. (a) automatic block (b) section clear system (c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system Ans : C 16. The feeder gauge .... is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc. (a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m Ans : A 17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track: (a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt Ans : B 18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called: (a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient Ans : B 19. Points and crossings are provided for change of ....on permanent ways. (a) gauge (b) direction and gradient (c) direction (d) gradient Ans : C 20. In locomotive ?hunting? is: (a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track (b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track (c) Motion after brakes have been applied (d) Combination of A and B above Ans : D 21. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called: (a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails (c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails Ans : A 22. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is: (a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m Ans : B 23. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be: (a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m Ans : B 24. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than: (a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m Ans : A 25. Generally the shape of fish plate is: (a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular Ans : B 26. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be: (a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm Ans : C 27. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is: (a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM (c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM Ans : B 28. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called (a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient Ans : D 29. The latest system of signaling introduced is: (a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system (c) section clear system (d) automatic block system Ans : A 30. Detonating signals are used: (a) for noisy engines (b) during foggy and cloudy weather (c) for deaf drivers (d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only Ans : B RRB Placement Paper RRB conducts recruitments for various posts.RRB Previous Question Papers for JE SSE Posts, RRB Junior Engineer Previous Question Papers with Answers, RRB JE SSE Solved Papers. This paper contains model questions of RRB Mechanical Engineering Solved Model Paper. RRB Mechanical Engineering Solved Model Paper 1. Work study is concerned with (a) improving present method and finding standard time (b) motivation of workers (c) improving production capability (d) improving production planning and control (e) all of the above. Ans: a 2. Basic tool in work study is (a) graph paper (b) process chart (c) planning chart (d) stop watch (e) analytical mind. Ans: d 3. What does symbol 'O' imply in work study (a) operation (b) inspection (c) transport (d) delay/temporary storage (e) none of the above. Ans: a 4. What does symbol 'D' imply in work study (a) inspection (b) transport (c) delay/temporary storage (d) permanent storage (e) none of the above. Ans: c 5. What hoes symbol' V' imply in work study (a) operation (b) inspection (c) delay/ temporary Storage (d) permanent storage (e) none of the above. Ans: d 6. Material handling in automobile industry is done by (a) overhead crane (b) trolley (c) belt conveyor (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a 7. String diagram is used when (a) team of workers is working at a place (b) material handling is to be done (c) idle time is to be reduced (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a 8. Work study is most useful (a) where production activities are involved (b) in judging the rating of machines (c) in improving industrial relations (d) in judging the output of a man and improving it (e) where men are biggest contributor to success of a project. Ans: a 9. Micromotion study is (a) enlarged view of motion study (b) analysis of one stage of motion study (c) minute and detailed motion study (d) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis (e) motion study of small components upto microseconds. Ans: d 10. In micromotion study, therblig is described by (a) a symbol (b) an event (c) an activity (d) micro motions (e) standard symbol and colour. Ans: e 11. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus (a) policy allowance (b) interference allowance (c) process allowance (d) learning allowance (e) unforeseen allowance. Ans: a 12. Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 20 (e) 24 Ans: c 13. The standard time for a job is (a) total work content (b) basic time + relaxation time (c) total work content + basic time (d) total work content + delay contingency allowance (e) total work content + relaxation time. Ans: d 14. Work study is done with the help of (a) process chart (b) material handling (c) stop watch (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: c 15. Scheduling gives information about (a) when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period (b) when work should complete (c) that how idle time can be minimised (d) prcper utilisation of machines (e) none of the above. Ans: a 16. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on (a) operator's activity (b) flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble (c) minimising the delays (d) making efficient despatching (e) none of the above. Ans: b 17. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to (a) determine overhead expenses (b) provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages (c) determine standard costs (d) determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines (e) compare alternative methods. Ans: a 18. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the (a) relative worth of jobs (b) skills required by a worker (c) contribution of a worker (d) contribution of a job (e) effectiveness of various alternatives. Ans: a 19. Micro motion study is (a) analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing device in the field of view (b) motion study* observed on enhanced time intervals (c) motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically (d) study of man and machine conducted simultaneously (e) scientific, analytical procedure for determining optimum work method. Ans: a 20. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by (a) work sampling (b) time study (c) method study (d) work study (e) ABC analysis. Ans: a 21. TMU in method time measurement stands for (a) time motion unit (b) time measurement unit (c) time movement unit (d) technique measurement unit (e) time method unit. Ans: b 22. Time study is (a) the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort (b) machine setting time (c) time taken by workers to do a job (d) method of fixing time for workers (e) method of determining the personnel Requirement. Ans: a 23. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of (a) detailed calculations (b) convenience (c) table of random numbers (d) past experience (e) fixed percentage of daily production. Ans: c 24. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method time measurement system equals (a) 0.0001 minute (b) 0.0006 minute (c) 0.006 minute (d) 0.001 minute (e) 0.06 minute. Ans: b 25. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of (a) second (b) minute (c) hour (d) day (e) none of the above. Ans: b 26. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for (a) improving a work method (b) improvising a work method (c) designing a work method (d) providing a schematic framework (e) reducing inventory costs. Ans: e 27. Gnatt chart provides information about the (a) material handling (b) proper utilization of manpower (c) production schedule (d) efficient working of machine (e) all of the above. Ans: c 28. ABC analysis deals with (a) analysis of process chart (b) flow of material (c) ordering schedule of job (d) controlling inventory costs money (e) all of the above. Ans: d 29. Process layout is employed for (a) batch production (b) continuous type of product (c) effective utilization of machines (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a 30. For a product layout the material handling equipment must (a) have full flexibility (b) employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc. (c) be a general purpose type (d) be designed as special purpose for a particular application (e) arranging shops according to specialization of duties. Ans: d 31. Travel charts provide (a) an idea of the flow of materials at various stages (b) a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work sections (c) the information for changes required in rearranging material handling equipment (d) an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular station (g) solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum^ results. Ans: b 32. Product layout is employed for (a) batch production (b) continuous production1 (c) effective utilisation of machine (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: b 33. The most important objective behind plant layout is (a) overall simplification, safety of integration (b) economy in space (c) maximum travel time in plant (d) to provide conveniently located shops (e) to avoid any bottlenecks. Ans: a 34. The process layout is best suited where (a) specialization exists (b) machines are arranged according to sequence of operation (c) few number of non-standardised units are to be produced (d) mass production is envisaged (e) bought out items are more. Ans: c 35. A low unit cost can be obtained by following (a) product layout (b) functional layout (c) automatic material handling equipment (d) specialisation of operation (e) minimum travel time plan and compact layout. Ans: a 36. Military organisation is known as (a) line organisation (b) line and staff organisation (c) functional organisation (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a 37. The main disadvantage of line organisation is (a) top level executives have to do excessive work (b) structure is rigid (c) communication delays occur (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 38. The main advantage of line organisation is its (a) effective command and control (b) defined responsibilities at all levels (c) rigid discipline in the organisation (d) ability of quick decision at all levels (e) all of the above. Ans: e 39. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as (a) line organisation (b) line and staff organisation (c) functional organisation (d) effective organisation (e) none of the above. Ans: c 40. The salient feature of functional organization is (a) strict adherence to specification (b) separation of planning and design part (c) each individual maintains functional efficiency (d) work is properly planned and distributed (e) all of the above. Ans: e 41. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is (a) line organisation (b) line and staff organisation (c) functional organisation (d) effective organisation (e) none of the above. Ans: a 42. Templates are used for (a) a planning layout (b) flow of material (c) advancing a programmer in automatic machines (d) copying complicated profiles (e) none of the above. Ans: a 43. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is (a) conveyors (b) cranes and hoists (c) trucks (d) locos (e) none of jhe above. Ans: d 44. Routing prescribes the (a) flow oftnaterial in the plant (b) proper utilization of man power (c) proper utilization of machines (d) inspection of final product (e) none of the above. Ans: a 45. Queuing theory deals with problems of (a) material handling (b) reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme (c) better utilization of man services (d) effective use of machines (e) none of the above. Ans: b 46. Standard time is defined as (a) normal time + allowances (b) normal time + idle time + allowances (c) normal time + idle time (d) only normal time for an operation (e) none of the above. Ans: a 47. Father of industrial engineering is (a) Jeck Gilberth (b) Gnatt (c) Taylor (d) Newton (e) none of the above. Ans: b 48. The grouping of activities into organizational units is called (a) corporate plans (b) higher level management (c) functional authority (d) departmentalization (e) company policy. Ans: d 49. Which of the following organization is preferred in automobile industry (a) functional organization (b) line organization (c) staff organization (d) line and staff organizations (e) scalar organization. Ans: d 50. Which of the following organizations is best suited for steel plants (a) functional organization (b) line organization (c) staff organization (d) line, staff and functional organizations (e) scalar organization. Ans: d RRB Question Papers 1. The nearest meaning of the word COARSE is _____. a. Impolite b. Rough - ans c. Polish d. Improper 2. The insulation resistance of a cable wire is 300 mega ohm per km. Its value for the length of 500 metre is ______. a. 600 mega ohm b. 300 mega ohm c. 75 mega ohm d. 150 mega ohm – ans 3. In a certain code language RUSH is written as 66. How will GIRL be written in the same code language? a. 75 b. 64 c. 47 d. 46 – ans 4. In a row of 25 children, Nayan is fourteenth from the right end. In the row, Arun is third to the left of Nayan. What is the place of Arun from the left in the row ? a. Tenth b. Seventh c. Eight d. Ninth – ans 5. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word:- Aggressive a. Assertive b. Proud c. Timid - ans d. Miser 6. Significant a. Distinct b. Extreme c. Alive d. Unimportant – ans 7. India’s longest sea-bridge connects:- a. Bandra – Worli - ans b. Dadar – Worli c. Bandra – Wasi d. Bandra – Haji Ali 8. Who is the President of Trinamool Congress Party? a. Mamta Banerjee – ans b. Subodh Banerjee c. Prakash Karat d. None of these 9. The Union Finance Minister is a. P. Chidambaram b. Dr. Manmohan Singh c. Pranab Mukherjee - ans d. None of these 10. The law which states that induced EMF and current always oppose the cause of their generation, is ______. a. Maxwell’s law b. Faraday’s law c. Leni’s Law - ans d. Fleming’s Law 11. A pure resistor circuit has power factor equal to ______. a. Zero b. One - ans c. Lagging d. Leading 12. The simplified form of motor controller is ______. a. Drum switch b. Magnetic switch - ans c. Relay d. Toggle Switch 13. When a transformer of 400 hertz is used at 50 hertz, its KVA rating a. Decreases by 1/8 - ans b. Increases 8 times c. Remains unchanged d. Is determined by load on the secondary 14. If the complete rating of a transformer at 0.9 power factor is 90KW, its Kilowatt ampere rating is ______. a. 81 - ans b. 100 c. 90 d. 120 RRB Aptitude Questions RRBoard Exam Model Question Papers with answers RRB Previous Year's Quantitative Aptitude Question papers Aptitude Questions 1. The greatest number from these numbers 3.5 ? 4, v0.64, 0.204 x 4, (0.89)2 is a. (0.89)2 b. 0.204 x 4 c. 3.5 ? 4 - Ans d. v0.64 2. When a number is divided by 56, the remainder obtained is 29. When the same number is divided by 8, then the remainder will be a. 5 - Ans b. 6 c. 2 d. 0 3. Simplified value of 7 + 2 x 6 ? 4 – 12 ? 6 is a. 0 b. 4 c. 10 d. 8 – Ans 4. The product of two numbers is 432 and half of one of them is 9. Sum of the numbers is a. 9 - Ans b. 24 c. 42 d. 32 5. A man is 59 years old. His brother is 7 years older than him and his sister is 12 years younger and his brother. When his sister was 15 years old, then the man’s age was a. 27 years b. 29 years c. 15 years d. 20 years – Ans 6. The quantity of water in litres, that must be added to 12 litres of beer priced at Rs.10 a litre to reduce the price to Rs.8 a litre, is a. 3 - Ans b. 1 c. 2 d. 3.5 7. The sale price of 2 oranges is equal to the cost price of 3 oranges. The gain percent is a. 40% b. 50% - Ans c. 25% d. 20% 8. In an examination, A and B secured respectively 6/7 and 5/6 of the full marks. If A secured 10 marks more than B, then the marks obtained by A is a. 340 b. 350 c. 360 – Ans d. 370 9. A book-seller buys books at a commission of 20% on the marked price. If he sells the books at the marked price, then his gain percent will be a. 20% b. 25% - ans c. 10% d. 30% 10. Ten years ago, the age of the father and the son were in the ratio 6 : 1 and 10 years hence the ratio will become 2 : 1. The present age of the father is a. 35 years b. 25 years c. 30 years d. 40 years - ans 11. If 3 pieces of table cloth cost Rs. 112.50, then number of pieces of table cloth available for Rs.487.50 is a. 11 b. 13 c. 15 d. 17 – ans 12. Simplified value of [v(24 x 32 x 49) / v(4 x 3 x 12)] is a. 7 b. 3 - ans c. 6 d. 21 13. A man purchased a pen for Rs.320. If he sold it for Rs.360, then his gain percent was a. 40% - ans b. 25% c. 12 1/2% d. 15% 14. A sum of money is divided into two parts in the ratio 5 : 3. If the smaller sum is Rs.384, then the total sum of money was a. Rs 1,024 – ans b. Rs. 640 c. Rs. 820 d. Rs. 764 15. A and B together can do a piece of work in 10 days. If A alone can do it in 15 days, then the time taken by B to do the same work alone is a. 15 days b. 20 days c. 25 days d. 30 days – ans 16. An express train leaves a station A at 6.45 p.m and reaches a station B 150 km away at 10.30 p.m. Time taken by the train to reach the next station C at a distance of 160 km away from station B with the same speed is a. 4 hours - ans b. 3 hours c. 3 3/4 hours d. 4 1/2 hours 17. A certain sum lent out at simple interest doubles itself in 20 years. Number of years in which this sum trebles itself at the same rate of interest is a. 30 b. 40 - ans c. 25 d. 20 18. A playground is 108 metres long and 80 metres broad. The cost of levelling the ground at Rs.5 per area is a. Rs.86.40 b. Rs.432 – ans c. Rs.2,160 d. Rs.1,080 19. The G.C.M and L.C.M of two numbers are 17 and 255 respectively and one of them is 51. The other number must be a. 68 b. 85 - ans c. 34 d. 87 20. The least number which when increased by 4, is divisible by each of the numbers 10, 15, 20 and 25, is a. 296 - ans b. 300 c. 304 d. 308 21. The least integer that is to be added to (9798 x 9792) to make it a perfect square is a. 9 - ans b. 8 c. 7 d. 6 22. A takes 5 hours more time than that taken by B to complete a work. If working together they can complete the work in 6 hours, then the number of hours that A takes to complete the work individually is a. 15 - ans b. 12 c. 10 d. 9 23. If each side of a square is increased by 10%, then the increase in the area is a. 10% b. 18% c. 20% d. 21% - ans 24. In an examination, 52 percent of the candidates fail in English and 42 percent fail in Mathematics. If 17 percent fail in English and Mathematics both, then the percentage of those who passed in both these subject is a. 69% b. 10% c. 17% d. 23% - ans 25. The simplified value of [(2 13/16 of 1/3) / (3/5 of 5/18 ? 5 1/6)] ? 1 15/16 of 1/5 is a. 5 b. 7 c. 75 – ans d. 12 26. If 8 men or 12 women can do a piece of work in 10 days, then the number of days required by 4 men and 4 women to finish the work is a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 – ans d. 4 27. The least number, that must be added to 2887, in order to make the sum of perfect square, is a. 29 – ans b. 78 c. 53 d. 54 28. 90% of A’s income is Rs.342. How much percent is B’s income more than A’s income, if B earns Rs, 456? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% - ans d. 25% 29. A trademan sold an article at a loss of 20%. If he had sold the article at Rs.200 more, then he would have gained 5%. The cost price of the article is a. Rs.600 b. Rs.800 – ans c. Rs.675 d. Rs.875 30. In a village, 40% of the population is literate. If the total population is 750, then the number of illiterates must be a. 450 – ans b. 400 c. 300 d. 350 31. The ratio in which Darjeeling tea @ Rs.32 per kg is mixed with Assam tea @ Rs.25 per kg so as to gain 20% by selling the mixture at Rs.32.40 per kg is a. 2:5 – ans b. 5:2 c. 1:5 d. 5:1 32. 4% of the candidates for an examination were absent and 30% of the remaining failed. If 336 candidates passed, then the total number of candidates was a. 500 – ans b. 600 c. 450 d. 480 33. The fourth proportional to 12 men, 9 men and Rs.3 is a. 2.25 b. Rs.2.25 - ans c. 2 men d. 6 men 34. The least fraction, that must be added to 1 1/3 ? 1 1/2 ?1 1/9 to make the result an integer, is a. 4/5 b. 3/5 c. 2/5 d. 1/5 – ans 35. What percent of v0.0169 is 0.0117? a. 0.9 b. 0.1 c. 0.09 d. 9 – ans 36. The square of a positive integer added to its fourth part is equal to 147. The number is a. 16 b. 24 c. 12 - ans d. 8 37. 819/3159, when reduced to its lowest term, is a. 7/27 - ans b. 7/37 c. 23/27 d. 17/37 38. The length of a rectangular plot of land is reduced by 20% but the area is kept the same as before. The breadth is increased by a. 16 2/3% b. 18 3/4% c. 25% - ans d. 33 1/3% 39. 3 men or 4 women or 5 boys can earn Rs.150 daily. Then 5 men with 8 women and 3 boys will earn per day a. Rs.620 b. Rs.640 – ans c. Rs.660 d. Rs.680 40. The rate percent per annum simple interest at which Rs.1200 will amount to Rs.1668 in six years is a. 12% b. 9% c. 6.5% - ans d. 7.5% 41. Sales-tax is reduced by 10% but sale increases by 10%. The revenue earned as sales-tax a. Increases by 0.1% b. Decreases by 0.1% c. Decreases by 1% - ans d. Remains unchanged 42. Total number of boys and girls eligible for the book grant is 9. Each boy is given a grant of Rs.25 and each girl is Rs.20. If the total amount given as grant is Rs.200, then the number of girls eligible for grant is a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 3 43. If the number 24 * 83 is divisible by 11, then * can be replaced by a. 7 - ans b. 6 c. 8 d. 4 44. A buys a pen at Rs.15 and sells it to B at a profit of 20%. B sells it at a loss of 10%. The loss to B must be a. Rs. 1.80 - ans b. Rs. 1.50 c. Rs. 3.00 d. Rs. 2.50 45. If a train 150 metres long passes a telegraph post in 12 seconds, then the time in which it will pass a bridge 250 metres long is a. 25 secs b. 30 secs c. 35 secs d. 32 secs – ans 46. A dealer professing to sell at cost price but uses 900 gm weight for a kilogram. His gain percent is a. 0.9% b. 9 1/9% c. 10 2/9% d. 11 1/9% - ans 47. The smallest perfect square number which is divisible by 12, 15 and 24 is a. 540 b. 360 c. 720 d. 3,600 – ans 48. The product of two positive integers is 936. Their ratio is 13:18. The greater number must be a. 42 b. 36 - ans c. 26 d. 18 49. A man spends in 4 months as much as he earns in 3 months. His annual savings are Rs.1206. His annual income must be a. Rs.4,428 b. Rs.4,824 – ans c. Rs.4,284 d. Rs.8,442 50. Rs.740 are divided among A, B and C is such a way that the shares of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4 and those of B and C are also in the 3 : 4. Then C must get a. Rs.320 - ans b. Rs.180 c. Rs.360 d. Rs.240 51. The least number by which 2 x 6 x 7 x 7 should be multiplied so as to make it a perfect square is a. 2 b. 3 - ans c. 6 d. 7 52. The L.C.M of 10, 12 and 15 is a. 60 – ans b. 75 c. 120 d. 180 53. The highest common factor of 851 and 943 is a. 24 b. 35 c. 31 d. 23 – ans 54. The L.C.M of two numbers is 840 and their H.C.F is 14. If one of the numbers is 42, then the other number must be a. 280 – ans b. 420 c. 140 d. 88 55. The least number, which when divided by 12, 18, 36 and 45 leaves the remainders 8, 14, 32 and 41 respectively is a. 176 – ans b. 180 c. 178 d. 186 56. If 2/3rd part of a number is greater by 4 than 3/5th of it, then what is the number? a. 30 b. 40 c. 60 – ans d. 20 57. The average of first five multiples of 3 is a. 27 b. 12 c. 9 – ans d. 3 58. The amount at compound interest on Rs.300 in 3 years at 10% per annum is given by a. Rs.399.30 – ans b. Rs.385.40 c. Rs.400.00 d. Rs.375.00 59. If the amount is 2 1/4 times of the sum after 2 years, then the rate of compound interest must be a. 60% b. 40% c. 64% d. 50% - ans 60. If the surface of a cube is 216 sq.cm, then its volume must be a. 108 sq.cm b. 36 cu.cm c. 216 sq.cm d. 216 cu.cm – ans 61. What fraction is 20 paise of Rs. 6.20? a. 31 b. 1/31 – ans c. 20 d. 1/32 62. The missing number in the series is 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 343, ? is a. 416 b. 625 c. 512 - ans d. 444 63. If three times of a number is greater than 3/5th of it by 60, then what is the number ? a. 25 - ans b. 20 c. 30 d. 60 64. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest of these fractions? 5/8, 21/35, 9/16, 6/7 a. 33/112 - ans b. 11/17 c. 13/41 d. 9/35 65. v100 + v49 = ? a. v149 b. v490 c. v10 + v14 d. 17 - ans 66. v(81/0.09) = ? a. 30 – ans b. 3 c. 0.3 d. 300 67. The square root of 4.9/12.1 is a. 2.3/3.5 b. 7/11 - ans c. 0.32 d. 12/17 68. The cube root of 64 is a. 8 b. 6 c. 4 - ans d. 16 69. The third proportion of 10 and 20 is a. 10 b. 20 c. 0 d. 40 – ans 70. The two numbers whose difference is 36 and the ratio between them is 7 : 16, are a. 14,32 b. 28,64 c. 64,28 – ans d. 21,48 RRB arithemetic Question Papers with answer Railway reccruitment Boards arithemtic and other questions with answers RRB ARITHMETIC PRACTICE QUESTIONS 1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.? (a) 30 minutes (b) 25 minutes (c) 28 minutes (d) 34 minutes 2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256,? (a) 4096 (b) 8192 (c) 512 (d) 1024 3. Find the number missing at question mark: 10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149 (a) 100 (b) 103 (c) 78 (d) 128 4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr ow much time it will take to cover the same distance? (a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes 5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure? (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6 6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18 7. One fourth percent of 180 is: (a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45 8.A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum k for paper I? a)100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150 9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 …………… (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14 10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase? (a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17 11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is …………. (a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400 12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%? (a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210 13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125? (a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50 14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long? (a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds 15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be ……. (a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds 16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams? (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40 17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work? (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6 18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers (a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050 19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops: (a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m 20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2 21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is …….. (a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3 (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution 22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2 23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years? (a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15% 24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5 25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400 26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in (a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes 27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats (a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes 28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is: (a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300 29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them? (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days 30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number? (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27 31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit? (a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 % 32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is: (a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2 33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number? (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0 34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks? (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450 35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the (a) Interior of the triangle (b) Midpoint of the diameter (c) Exterior of the triangle (d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle 36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle? (a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180 37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle? (a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre 38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height? (a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r 39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas? (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6 40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3 41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students assed in both the subjects? (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45 42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream? (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr 43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer? (a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32 44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm. (a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm 45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, …… (a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57 46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is: (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30 47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 = (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21 48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30 (a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750 49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B? (a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510 50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number: (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31 Answers 1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A 2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A 3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B 4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C 5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A 6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C 7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B 8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D 9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B RRB SR. Section Engineer Mechanical RRb Sr. Section Engineer MECHANICAL written test on 16/09/2012 RRb question paper 150 questions which inludes aptitude and Reasoning 50 questions, RRb Sr engineer examination 1/3 negative mark Here Im sharing the written test format in Mechanical streams Total Marks-150 Stream wise questions-50 Negative Mark-1/3 Question paper- consist following type questions are asking Total- 150 marks ----- 1/3 negative mark for wrong answer . 1) Aptitude & reasoning- 45 to 50 questions 2) General Awareness- 10 to 15 questions 3) MECHANICAL -45 questions . Mostly asking following subjects (Mechanics, Strength of materials, FM & HM, Theory of Machines, Thermodynamics & Production Technology ) 4) General Electrical Engineering. Like units, Principles etc -30 questions 5) Basics of Computers -15 questions 60% of Questions are easy. These structure will help you in your upcoming RRb recruitment test Thank you friends RRB question Papers RRB Objective Type Questions-Civil Engineering 1. Concrete is strong in (a) Compression (Ans) (b) Tension (c) Buckling 2. On tension stone concrete has (a) More strength (b) Zero strength (Ans) (c) Medium strength 3. In concrete cement is added (a) To take heavy loads (b) To increase the volume of concrete (c) To act as a binding material (Ans) 4. In an ordinary portland cement, the composition of lime is (a) 50% (b) 63% (Ans) (c) 21% 5. For ordinary portland cement the fineness should not be less than (a) 50,000 mm2/g (b) 20,000 mm2/g (c) 225,000 mm2/g (Ans) 6. In cement-fineness test the percentage of residue should not exceed (a) 20% of good cement (b) 10 of good cement (Ans) (c) 25.5 of good cement 7. Soundness of cement is defined by (a) the amount of expansion of the cement paste (Ans) (b) the amount of contraction of the cement paste (c) the sound produced while placing the concrete 8. The apparatus used to find normal consistency of cement is (a) Le-Chatlier apparatus (b) Vicat plunger apparatus (Ans) (c) Rankines apparatus 9. Lower the normal consistency value, (a) Lower will be the strength of concrete (b) Medium will be the strength of concrete (c) Higher will be the strength of concrete (Ans) 10. The size of vicat needle, used to conduct setting of cement is (a) 10mm dia (b) 1mm Square (Ans) (c) 3mm Square 11. Fine aggregates are the aggregates having the size less than: (a) 5mm (b) 4.75mm (Ans) (c) 3.50mm 12. In concrete the material used as a fine aggregate is (a) cement (b) sand (Ans) (c) jelly 13. In concrete the fine aggregates is used to (a) Fill up the voids in cement (b) Fill up the voids in coarse aggregate (Ans) (c) Fill up the voids in sand 14. In concrete, coarse aggregate is mainly used for (a) providing bulk to the concrete (Ans) (b) increasing the volume of concrete (c) eliminating bulk to the concrete 15. For R.C.C. 1:2:4, the size of broken stone used is (a) 25mm (b) 20mm (Ans) (c) Less than 20mm 16. For plain C.C. 1:4:8, the size of broken stone used is (a) 40mm (Ans) (b) below 40mm (c) 20mm 17. In concrete, steel is used to (a) Take up the buckling strength (b) Take up the compression strength (c) Take up the Tensile strength (Ans) 18. Mild steel having a carbon content of (a) Low carbon steel (Ans) (b) Medium carbon steel (c) High carbon steel 19. Mild steel having a carbon content of (a) 25% (b) 0.25% (Ans) (c) 0.5% 20. The carbon content in the steel should not exceed (a) 0.5% (b) 0.8% (c) 0.3% (Ans) 21. High carbon steel is a steel having a carbon content of (a) More than 0.50% (Ans) (b) More than 50% (c) Less than 0.50% 22. In concrete grade M15 - "M" indicates (a) Mortar (b) Mix (Ans) (c) Mild steel 23. In concrete grade M15 - "15" indicates (a) Characteristic strength of 75mm size concrete cube after 7 days curing in N/mm2 (b) Characteristic strength of 10mm size concrete cube after 22 days curing in N/mm2 (c) Characteristic strength of 150mm size concrete cube after 28 days curing in N/mm2 (Ans) 24. Workability of concrete is termed as (a) the ease of work with which the concrete can be mixed, placed in position and compacted (Ans) (b) the life of concrete after placing (c) the maximum load taken by the concrete 25. Good workability is obtained by (a) Adding more cement (b) Adding more water (Ans) (c) Adding less water 26. But, which reduces (a) Weakness of concrete (b) Life of concrete (c) Strength of concrete (Ans) 27. When compared to machine mixing, hand mixing is not preferable because hand mixing requires (a) More cement (Ans) (b) More skill (c) More Labours 28. Modular ratio is the ratio between the Young's modulus of: (a) sand and steel (b) steel and concrete (Ans) (c) steel and cement 29. Modular ratio is obtained by using the formula (a) m = 250/3 scbc (b) m = 280/5 scbc (c) m = 280/3 scbc (Ans) 30. For M15 Grade concrete, the value of modular ratio 'm is (a) 13.3 (b) 18.7 (Ans) (c) 17.5 31. For M20 Grade concrete, the value of modular ratio 'm' is (a) 13.3 (Ans) (b) 18.7 (c) 17.5 32. Shrinkage of concrete develops (a) spalling in concrete (b) bends in concrete (c) cracks in concrete (Ans) 33. The total methods, used to design R.C.C. members are (a) Three methods (Ans) (b) Five methods (c) Two methods 34. The conventional method and mostly adopted in R.C.C. Structures Design is (a) Working stress method (Ans) (b) Limit state method (c) Method based on experimental investigation 35. On working stress method, adopted factor of safety for concrete is (a) 0.5 to 1 (b) 3 to 4 (Ans) (c) 1.8 to 2 36. In working stress method, adopted factor of safety for steel is (a) 0.5 to 1 (b) 3 to 4 (c) 1.8 to 2 (Ans) 37. scbc indicates (a) permissible stress in concrete in bending compression (Ans) (b) permissible stress in steel in bending compression (c) None of the above 38. Curing of concrete is done, to (a) keep the moisture content inside the concrete as it is (Ans) (b) remove the moisture content inside the concrete (c) increase the workability of concrete 39. Any concrete attains 100% strength only after (a) 28 days curing (b) 24 days curing (c) One year (Ans) 40. The test conducted for identifying the mix of concrete is (a) slump test (b) cube test (Ans) (c) compacting factor test 41. In concrete cube test, the standard size of cube is (a) 15 cm x 15 cm x 15 cm (Ans) (b) 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm (c) 25 cm x 25 cm x 25 cm 42. W.C. ratio is the ratio between (a) water and concrete (b) water and cement (Ans) (c) workability and concrete 43. The wet density of concrete mix is (a) 24,000 kg/m3 (b) 25,000 kg/m3 (c) 2,400 kg/m3 (Ans) 44. For 1:2:4 mix concrete the amount of cement added is (a) 310 kg/m3 (b) 663 kg/m3 (c) 290 kg/m3 (Ans) 45. When the characteristic strength is specified the K factor is (a) 1.00 (b) 1.64 (Ans) (c) 2.00 46. Which of the following slumps would be most commonly applicable for pumped concrete? (a) 50mm (b) 100mm (c) 75mm (Ans) 47. A throw compaction of concrete is obtained only by using (a) Mixers (b) Vibrators (Ans) (c) Compacting Rods 48. Pre-cast concretes are compacted well by using (a) Surface vibrators (b) Needle vibrators (c) Vibrating Tables (Ans) 49. For Beams, the compaction of concrete is done by (a) Needle vibrators (b) Surface vibrators (Ans) (c) Vibrating Tables 50. Dry lean concrete bases to roads etc-can be compacted by (a) vibrating rollers (Ans) (b) immersion vibrators (c) beam vibrators RRB General-Awareness RRB Previous Question Papers for JE SSE Posts, RRB Junior Engineer Previous Question Papers with Answers, RRB JE SSE Solved Papers?, This paper contains model questions of RRB junior engineer general knowledge questions. RRB Junior Engineer Question Paper General Knowledge 1. Who is known as the ?Iron Man of India?? A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak B. Lala Lajpat Rai C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel D. Subhash Chandra Bose Ans. (C) 2. In which of the following fields did Tenzing Norgay distinguish himself? A. Boxing B. Mountaineering C. Archery D. Hockey Ans. (B) 3. Who was the first lady Prime Minister of the World? A. Sirimavo Bhandranaike B. Margaret Thatcher C. Indira Gandhi D. Golda Meir Ans. (A) 4. Where is Central Potato Research Institute? A. Shimla B. Lucknow C. Kanpur D. Bhopal Ans. (A) 5. With which field is ?Vikram Seth? associated? A. Space Research B. Literature C. Journalism D. Music Ans. (B) 6. India?s anti-tank missile is: A. Akash B. Agni C. Prithvi D. Nag Ans. (D) 7. The major difference between the Moderates and the Extremists in the Congress Session of 1907 was regarding (a) Education (b) Boycott (c) Satyagraha (d) Swaraj Ans. (b) 8. Devaluation of currency helps in promoting? (a) imports (b) exports (c) tourism (d) national income Ans. (b) 9. Which Indian State is the largest producer of cashew nuts? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Kerala (c) Assam (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans. (b) 10. 1930 is associated with? (a) Presentation of Nehru Report (b) Dandi March (c) Second Round Table Conference (d) Lahore Congress Ans. (b) 11. Indian Railways has recently decided to set up a new Wheel & Axle factory at: A. Chhapra B. Harnaut C. Jamalpur D. Darbhanga Ans. (A) 12. Match the following cities of South India with their States: (a) Coimbatore 1. Kerala (b) Cochin (Kochi) 2. Karnataka (c) Mangalore 3. Tamil Nadu (d) Vijayanagar 4. Andhra Pradesh A. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2 B. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 C. a-1, b3, c-2, d-4 D. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 Ans. (B) 13. With which of the following gland/organ is ?diabetes? associated? A. Thyroid B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Kidney Ans. (C) 14. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body? A. Heart B. Kidney C. Eye D. Ear Ans. (C) 15. The blood cholesterol level in 100 ml of blood in a normal person varies between: A. 250 to 350 mg B. 150 to 250 mg C. 100 to 150 mg D. 50 to 100 mg Ans. (C) 16. Choose the correct chronological order of dynasties: A. Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq, Khilji B. Slave, Tughlaq, Khilji, Lodi C. Khilji, Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq D. Slave, Khilji, Tughlaq, Lodi Ans. (D) 17. Token currency was introduced in India for the first time by: A. Firuz Shah Tughlaq B. Muhammad bin Tughlaq C. Alauddin Khilji D. Qutubuddin Aibak Ans. (B) 18. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? A. Bairam Khan ? Akbar B. Jaswant Singh ? Aurangzeb C. Amir Khusrau ? Jehangir D. Ambar Malik ? Humayun Ans. (C) 19. Match the. following ancient books with their authors: (a) Mahabharata 1. Kalidasa (b) Kadambari 2. Panini (c) Meghadoot 3. Banabhatta (d) Asthadhyayi 4. Ved Vyas A. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3, B. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 C. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 D. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 Ans. (C) 20. Which of the following can be used for checking inflation temporari1y? (a) Decrease in taxes (b) Increase in wages (c) Decrease in money supply (d) None of these Ans. (c) 21. With which aspect of Commerce are ?bull? and ?hear? associated? A. Banking B. Foreign Trade C. Stock Market D. Internal Trade Ans. (C) 22. The Tenth Five-Year Plan pertains to which period? A. 2000-01 to 2004-05 B. 2001-02 to 2005-06 C. 2002-03 to 2006-07 D. 2003-04 to 2007-08 Ans. (C) 23. Debt service ratio implies ratio between: A. export and total payout on debt B. import and total debt C. domestic saving and import D. domestic saving and total debt Ans. (A) 24 Who said, where wealth accumulates, men decay?? A. Abraham Lincoln B. Mao-Tse-Thng C. Karl Marx D. Goldsmith Ans. (D) 25. Gresham?s law in economic relates to: A. distribution of goods and services B. circulation of currency C. supply and demand D. consumption and supply Ans. (B) 26. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly is true? 1. It is not based on Adult Franchise 2. It resulted from direct elections 3. it was a multiparty body 4. it worked through several committees A. l and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. l, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (C) 27. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha? A. Money Bills B. Bills pertaining, to the powers of the Supreme court of State Judiciary C. Bills proclaiming the state of emergency arising out of war or external aggression D. Bills bringing a State under emergency rules Ans. (A) 28. How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a member of either Houses of the Parliament? A. 3 months B. 6 months C. l year D. No time limit Ans. (B) 29. Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales give the same reading at: A. ?273° B. ?40° C. ?32° D. 100° Ans. (B) 30. Match the scientists with their inventions: (a) C. Marconi 1. Gramophone (b) J.L. Baird 2. Radio (c) Alexander Graham Bell 3. Television (d) Thomas Alva Edison 4. Telephone A. a-l, b-2, c-3, d-4 B. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 C. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-l Ans. (D) 31. In the process of galvanization, an iron sheet is coated with: A. aluminum B. zinc C. tin D. chromium Ans. (B) 32. Rate of evaporation does not depend upon: A. temperature of the liquid B. surface area of the liquid C. mass of the liquid D. air pressure Ans. (C) 33. Which of the following process produce Hydrogen gas? A. Electrolysis of water B. Passing of steam over red hot iron C. Reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid D. All of these Ans. (A) 34. Match the following with their chemical formulae (a) Common Salt 1. Na2 SiO3 (b) Alum 2. NaCl (c) Gypsum 3. K2SO4. Al2 (SO4)3 24H2O (d) Quartz 4. CaSO4. 2H2O A. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-l B. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2 C. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 D. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 Ans. (A) 35. Which of the following is an element? A. Ruby B. Sapphire C. Emerald D. Diamond Ans. (D) 36. Which of the following is true regarding a catalyst? 1. It increases the rate of reaction 2. It increases the activation energy 3. It reduces the activation energy 4. It is consumed in the reaction A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 5 Ans. (B) 37. The hydraulic automobiles application of: A. Archimedes? Principle B. Pascal?s law C. Bernoulli?s theorem D. Faraday?s law Ans. (B) 38. Match the following countries with their capitals: (a) Nigeria 1. Luanda (b) Qatar 2. Abuja (c) Zambia 3. Lusaka (d) Angola 4. Doha A. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-l B. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-l C. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 D. a-4, b-2, c-3, d-l Ans. (A) 39. Which of the following planets orbits around the sun in backward direction from east to west? A. Earth C. Venus B. Mercury D. Jupiter Ans. (C) 40. More than two third of world?s tin comes from which country? A. China B. Malaysia C. Nigeria D. Brazil Ans. (A) 41. The largest temple in the world A. Meenakshi Temple B. Angkor Vat C. Pashupati Nath Temple of Nepal D. Kashi Vishwanath Temple Ans. (B) 42. Aryabhatta was India?s renowned: A. Poet B. Physicist C. Mathematician D. Physician Ans. (C) 43. Which of the following pair does not match? A. Sariska Sanctuary ? Rajasthan B. Kaziranga National Park ? Assam (Asom) C. Ghana Bird Sanctuary ? Meghalaya D. Shivpuri National Park ? Madhya Pradesh Ans. (C) 44. Match the following hill stations of India with their states: (a) Gulmarg 1. Rajasthan (b) Dalhousie 2. Madhya Pradesh (c) Mt. Abu 3. Jammu and Kashmir (d) Panchmarhi 4. Himachal Pradesh 5. Uttaranchal A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 B. á-5, b-3, c-i, d-2 C. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-5 D. a-5, b-4, c-2, d-1 Ans. (A) 45. On which river the Pong Dam has been constructed? A. Ganga B. Tapti C. Yamuna D. Beas Ans. (D) 46. Which country is the world?s largest supplier of silk? A.. USA B. Japan C. China D. India Ans. (C) 47. Which one of the following does not contribute to development in India? A. Technological research B. Population growth C. Diversification of industry D. Increased saving Ans. (B) 48. ?Jog? the highest water fall in India is located in the state of A. Uttaranchal. B. Jammu and Kashmir C. Tamil Nadu D. Karnataka Ans. (D) 49. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the: A. Chief Justice B. Vice-President C. Prime Minister D. Union Cabinet Ans. (C) 50. The first state in India carved out on a linguistic basis was: A. Andhra Pradesh B. Orissa C. Manipur D. Kerala Ans. (A) RRB Question Papers with answer RRB latest Interview question Paper Arithemetic,General Awareness Railway Recruitment Board Hajipur (Group-D) Solved Paper Direction?In question 1 to 5, find the number/word in place of ??? 1. 1, 3, 7, 15, ? (A) 16 (B) 31 (C) 46 (D) 30 Ans : (B) 2. 81, 27, 9, 3, ? (A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 1 (D) 27 Ans : (C) 3. Drama : Director :: Team : ? (A) Spectator (B) Captain (C) Player (D) Play ground Ans : (B) 4. 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, ? (A) 144 (B) 169 (C) 100 (D) 121 Ans : (D) 5. Daughter : Mother :: Mars : ? (A) Earth (B) Girl (C) Sister (D) Sun Ans : (D) 6. After which war Ashoka embraced Buddhism? (A) Kalinga?s war (B) Peshawar war (C) War of South India (D) War of Khanwa Ans : (A) 7. Which of the following is not a non-metal ? (A) Carbon (B) Sulphur (C) Aluminium (D) Nitrogen Ans : (C) 8. Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Taj Mahal?Agra (B) Gol Ghar?Patna (C) Buland Darwaza?Fatehpur Sikri (D) Qutub Minar?Lucknow Ans : (D) 9. Sun Temple is located at? (A) Tanjore (B) Khajuraho (C) Vapi (D) Konark Ans : (D) 10. Number of teams which participated in recently held cricket tournament of Indian Premier League is (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 Ans : (C) 11. Find out what will come at ?? pqrs, rsqp, qpsr, ? (A) rpsq (B) srpq (C) rsqp (D) srqp Ans : (B) 12. Which of the following rivers does not pass through Bihar ? (A) Kosi (B) Yamuna (C) Bagmati (D) Son Ans : (B) 13. Mahendra Singh Dhoni played for IPL cricket team of? (A) Kolkata (B) Mumbai (C) Hyderabad (D) Chennai Ans : (D) 14. Which Indian Cricketer holds the record of highest runs in one Test innings ? (A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) Sachin Tendulkar (C) Virender Sehwag (D) V.V.S. Laxman Ans : (C) 15. The Union Territory of Delhi cannot be accorded the status of a State, because? (A) Its legislature is not bicameral (B) This is National Capital territory, its legislature and cabinet have limited powers (C) There is no High Court (D) It has no language of its own Ans : (B) 16. Some cards are distributed among A, B, C and D. A gets one card less than B, while C gets 5 cards more than D. B and D get equal cards. The person who gets minimum cards is? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D Ans : (A) 17. Credit for unification of Princely states goes to? (A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (C) Sardar Patel (D) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Ans : (C) 18. Gopal is elder than Mohan, but younger than Ram. Mohan is elder than Sohan but younger than Ram. The eldest of them is? (A) Gopal (B) Mohan (C) Ram (D) Sohan Ans : (C) 19. Who is Ex-Officio Chairperson of Planning Commission ? (A) President of India (B) Prime Minister of India (C) Leader of Opposition (D) Finance Minister Ans : (B) 20. Census is done in India generally after every? (A) 5 years (B) 7 years (C) 10 years (D) 20 years Ans : (C) 21. Which of the following does not participate in the election of President of India ? (A) Rajya Sabha (B) Lok Sabha (C) Vidhan Sabha (D) Vidhan Parishad Ans : (D) 22. The biggest living mammal is? (A) Elephant (B) Blue Whale (C) Camel (D) Giraffe Ans : (B) 23. Match events given in List-I with the name of the person associated given in List-II and choose the answers from the codes given below? (a) Establishment of Mughal empire (b) Formation of Azad Hind Fauz (c) Establishment of Muslim University (d) Starting of Din-e-Elahi 1. Sir Saiyad Ahmed Khan 2. Akbar 3. Babar 4. Subhash Chandra Bose Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 3 1 4 2 (D) 2 4 1 3 Ans : (A) 24. The pH of pure water is? (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 Ans : (B) 25. The name of official residence of President of USA ? (A) White House (B) Pentagon (C) Downing Street (D) Buckingham Palace Ans : (A) 26. If Ram gives one mango to Shyam, both have equal number of mangoes. But if Shyam gives one mango to Ram, Ram will have 3 times number of mangoes as compared to Shyam. Number of mangoes they have is? (A) 4 and 2 (B) 5 and 7 (C) 5 and 3 (D) 6 and 4 Ans : (C) 27. Sun is worshipped in which of the following festivals ? (A) Buddh Purnima (B) Holi (C) Chhath (D) Diwali Ans : (C) 28. Durand Cup is related to? (A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Tennis (D) Football Ans : (D) 29. In the given list of Ports and States, which is not correctly matched ? (A) Kolkata ?West Bengal (B) Kochin ?Karnataka (C) Kandla ?Gujarat (D) Vishakhapattanam?Andhra Pradesh Ans : (B) 30. ?Swaraj is my birth right??slogan was given by? (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Ans : (A) 31. Connect the States in List-I to their Capitals in List-II and choose the correct answer using the code below? List-I (States) (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu List-II (Capital) 1. Chennai 2. Jaipur 3. Patna 4. Lucknow Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 3 2 4 (B) 4 3 1 2 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 1 3 4 2 Ans : (C) 32. Which of the following is a Kharif Crop ? (A) Wheat (B) Rice (C) Peas (D) Mustard Ans : (B) 33. Which of the following is used to make bread soft ? (A) Alcohol (B) Chlorella (C) Agar (D) Yeast Ans : (D) 34. Function of dynamo is to? (A) Convert electric energy into heat (B) Mechanical energy into electrical energy (C) Electrical energy into mechanical energy (D) Chemical energy into electrical energy Ans : (B) 35. In elections held for Constituent Assembly of Nepal, recently, the leader of political party winning the highest number of seats is? (A) Gyanendra (B) Prachanda (C) Vir Vikram Sah (D) None of these Ans : (B) 36. Which of the following persons is known for his pioneering efforts in promoting the green revolution in India ? (A) Albert Einstein (B) Norman Borlaug (C) Benjamin Franklin (D) Kapil Dev Ans : (B) 37. Anaemia is caused due to lack of which of the following material in body ? (A) Copper (B) Calcium (C) Zinc (D) Iron Ans : (D) l 38. Diabetes is caused due to lack of which of the following ? (A) Testasterone (B) Insulin (C) Vitamin D (D) Calcium Ans : (B) 39. 3/4 + 2/5 + 3/7 = ? (A) 23/20 (B) 41/35 (C) 161/140 (D) 221/140 Ans : (D) 40. Nuclear deal with which of the following countries was hotly debated recently? (A) Britain (B) China (C) Australia (D) USA Ans : (D) 41. Alexander attacked India in the year? (A) 320 B.C. (B) 326 B.C. (C) 261 A.D. (D) 256 A.D. Ans : (B) 42. Chief Minister of Maharashtra is? (A) Ashok Chavhan (B) Manohar Joshi (C) Gopinath Munde (D) S.M. Krishna Ans : (A) 43. Match the measuring device given in List-I to the things they measure given in List-II and choose the answer from the codes given below? List-I (Measuring device) (a) Thermometer (b) Barometer 1. Voltage 2. Purity of milk 3. Pressure 4. Temperature Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 2 1 3 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 4 3 1 2 Ans : (D) 44. Which of the following blood group is universal acceptor ? (A) A (B) B (C) AB (D) O Ans : (C) 45. Which is a famous place of an ancient university ? (A) Rajgir (B) Nalanda (C) Sarnath (D) Vaishali Ans : (B) 46. President?s Rule can be imposed in a State of India under which Article of Constitution of India ? (A) Article 356 (B) Article 352 (C) Article 370 (D) Article 324 Ans : (A) 47. If the length and width of a rectangular park is increased by 20% each, the area of the park shall increased by? (A) 40% (B) 20% (C) 44% (D) 36% Ans : (C) 48. Which disease is caused due to lack of Vitamin ?C? in human body ? (A) Scurvy (B) Night blindness (C) Rickets (D) Beri-beri Ans : (A) 49. Chief of Maharashtra Navnirman Sena is? (A) Uddhav Thackeray (B) Raj Thackeray (C) Balasaheb Thackeray (D) None of these Ans : (B) 50. The leader of Pakistan People?s Party killed in a bomb explosion was? (A) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto (B) Benazir Bhutto (C) Saddam Hussain (D) Fidel Castro Ans : (B) 51. When a bar magnet is hung from a thread, it will point towards? (A) North-South direction (B) East-West direction (C) Not in specific direction (D) Will depend upon the length of the magnet Ans : (A) 52. Sati system came to end during the tenure of which Governor- General ? (A) Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings (C) Dalhousie (D) William Bentick Ans : (D) 53. Kanishka belonged to which dynasty ? (A) Mauryas (B) Guptas (C) Kushanas (D) Chalukyas Ans : (C) 54. If 4th day of the month, falls two days after Monday, 19th of the month will be? (A) Monday (B) Wednesday (C) Friday (D) Thursday Ans : (D) 55. The value of gravitational acceleration ?g? is? (A) 9?8 m/sec2 (B) 98 m/sec2 (C) 0?98 m/sec2 (D) 0?098 m/sec2 Ans : (A) 56. Which metal is extracted from Kolar mines ? (A) Copper (B) Aluminium (C) Silver (D) Gold Ans : (D) 57. Olympic games had been held in 2008 in? (A) Beijing (B) Atlanta (C) Melbourne (D) Seoul Ans : (A) 58. Kumbha Mela is not held at which of the following place ? (A) Allahabad (B) Bhopal (C) Haridwar (D) Nasik Ans : (B) 59. Which ofthe following is a nuclear fuel ? (A) Thorium (B) Graphite (C) Diamond (D) Silicon Ans : (A) 60. In the given list of folk dances and concerned State, which is not correctly matched ? Dance form ? State (A) Bihu ? Andhra Pradesh (B) Bhangra ? Punjab (D) Nautanki ? Uttar Pradesh Ans : (A) 61. Tenure of a Rajya Sabha Member is? (A) 4 years (B) 5 years (C) 6 years (D) 10 years Ans : (C) 62. Which of the following is a leap year ? (A) 1986 (B) 1906 (C) 1980 (D) 1998 Ans : (C) 63. I am standing on a river bank with my back towards the river. An object is floating from my left to right. The river is flowing from west to east. I am facing towards? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South Ans : (C) (b) Force (c) Work done (d) Temperature List-II (Units) 1. Fahrenheit 2. Joule 3. Newton 4. Metres/second2 Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 2 3 1 (B) 2 4 3 1 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 4 2 1 Ans : (C) 67. Match the religious books in List-I with religion in List-II and give correct answer using the codes given below? List-I (Religious Books) (a) Quran (b) Bible (c) Jatak (d) Guru Granth Sahib List-II (Religion) 1. Christianity 2. Islam 3. Sikhism 4. Buddhism Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 4 3 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 2 1 4 3 Ans : (D) 68. Name the House among the following which is presided by a person who is not a Member of the House ? (A) Lok Sabha (B) Rajya Sabha (C) Vidhan Sabha (D) Vidhan Parishad Ans : (B) 69. Match the countries given in List-I to the continent they are in given in List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below? List-I (Country) (a) Thailand (b) Ghana (c) Argentina (d) Spain List-II (Continent) 1. South America 2. Asia 3. Europe 4. Africa Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 4 1 3 (B) 2 4 3 1 (C) 4 2 1 3 (D) 2 1 4 3 Ans : (A) 70. ?Bhudan Movement? was started by? (A) Vinoba Bhave (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Sardar Patel (D) C. Rajagopalachari Ans : (A) 71. In the given list of Zonal Railways and their Headquarters Offices, which is not correctly matched ? (A) East-Central Railway?Hajipur (B) Eastern Railway?Kolkata (C) Northern Railway?New Delhi (D) Central Railway?Allahabad Ans : (D) 72. Students of a class are sitting in a row during photography session. Shailendra is sitting at the 4th place from one end, but he is at 27th place from the other end. Number of students in the class is? (A) 32 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 30 Ans : (D) 73. The name of National President of Bharatiya Janta Party is? (A) L.K. Advani (B) Nitin Gadhkari (C) Rajnath Singh (D) Venkaiah Naidu Ans : (B) 74. Which of the following Sultans had shifted the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad ? (A) Firoz Tughlaq (B) Muhammad Tughlaq (C) Allauddin Khilji (D) Qutubuddin Aibak Ans : (B) 75. Four friends are sitting in a row. Raju is at right side of Pankaj. Virendra is at the right side of Raju. Sanjay is at the left side of Virendra and Raju, but he is not at the end. The person sitting at the right end of the row is? (A) Raju (B) Virendra (C) Sanjay (D) Pankaj Ans : (B) 76. Decibel is used in measurement of? (A) Intensity of sound (B) Sugar in blood (C) Density of air (D) Height of aeroplane during flight Ans : (A) 77. In terms of total population among all countries of the world, India is at position? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (B) l.bl o gspo 78. America was discovered by? (A) Vasco-de-gama (B) Columbus (C) Magelan (D) Captain Cook Ans : (B) 79. In order to produce an arrested person before a Court, which type of writ can be issued ? (A) Mandamus (B) Habeas Corpus (C) Quo-Warranto (D) Certiorari Ans : (B) 80. Gadar Party was founded by? (A) Lala Lajpat Rai (B) Sohan Singh Bhakhna (C) Lala Har Dayal (D) Jagat Pal Singh Ans : (C) 81. Which of the following cannot convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds ? (A) Soyabean (B) Wheat (C) Peanut (D) Peas Ans : (B) 82. Which of the following is not a gas at room temperature ? (A) Hydrogen (B) Iodine (C) Fluorine (D) Helium Ans : (B) 83. Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Rama Charita Manas ?Tulsi Das (B) Kamayani ?Jay Shankar Prasad (C) Madhushala ? Sumitra Nandan Pant (D) My experiment with truth ?M.K. Gandhi Ans : (C) 84. Author of ?Satanic Verses? is? (A) Salman Rushdie (B) Vikram Seth (C) R.K. Narayan (D) Mulkraj Anand Ans : (A) 85. Constitution of India came into operation with effect from? (A) 15th August, 1947 (B) 26th January, 1950 (C) 26th January, 1947 (D) 15th August, 1950 Ans : (B) 86. Find the odd one out? (A) Red (B) Black (C) Yellow (D) Colour Ans : (D) 87. A bus charges 40 paise for the first 1?6 km, 35 paise for the next 1?4 km and thereafter 25 paise for every 3 km. In Rs. 4, a person will travel for? (A) 42 km (B) 43 km (C) 45 km (D) 39 km Ans : (A) 88. Correct chronological order of dynasties? (A) Khiljis, Ghulams, Tughlaqs, Mughals (B) Ghulams, Khiljis, Tughlaqs, Mughals (C) Ghulams, Khiljis, Mughals, Tughlaqs (D) Tughlaqs, Ghulams, Khiljis, Mughals Ans : (B) 89. Ice floats on water because? (A) Ice absorbs some water and floats (B) It is due to chemical reaction between ice and water (C) Density of ice is less than the density of water (D) None of these Ans : (C) 90. Find the odd one out? (A) March (B) April (C) June (D) September Ans : (A) 91. Panini is related to? (A) Painting (B) Sanskrit Grammar (C) Dance (D) Medical Education Ans : (B) 92. Which of the following cities is not situated at river Ganga ? (A) Kanpur (B) Dhanbad (C) Patna (D) Haridwar Ans : (B) 93. First Sikh Guru was? (A) Guru Arjun Dev (B) Guru Angad (C) Guru Nanak Dev (D) Guru Gobind Singh Ans : (C) 94. It is 3 O?clock is my watch. If the hour hand points towards east direction, the minute hand will point towards? (A) North (B) South (C) West (D) Nort-East Ans : (A) 95. Boundaries of which of the following States does not touch a neighbouring country ? (A) Bihar (B) Jharkhand (C) West Bengal (D) Uttar Pradesh Ans : (B) 96. Choose the correct sequence of the following fractions in ascending order? 2/5, 1/2, 3/7, 2/3, 1/4 (A) 1/4, 3/7, 2/5, 1/2, 2/3 (B) 1/4, 2/5, 3/7, 1/2, 2/3 (C) 1/4, 1/2, 2/5, 3/7, 2/3 (D) 2/5, 1/4, 1/2, 3/7, 2/3 Ans : (B) 97. At 8?30 PM, the angle between hour hand and minute hand shall be? (A) 90° (B) 75° (C) 60° (D) 85° Ans : (B) 98. Deepak walks 40 metre in North direction; then he turns right and walks 50 metre. He again turns right and walks 40 metre. How far he is with respect to his original position ? (A) 0 metre (B) 50 metre (C) 40 metre (D) 10 metre Ans : (B) 99. Ramakrishna Mission was founded by? (A) Ramakrishna Paramhansa (B) Swami Vivekananda (C) Dayanand Saraswati (D) Raja Rammohan Roy Ans : (B) 100. The largest share of electricity produced in India in of? (A) Thermal power (B) Hydro electric power (C) Nuclear power (D) Wind power Ans : (A) 101. Of the first three Presidents of India, which is the correct sequence in chronological order ? (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Dr. Zakir Hussain, Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, Dr. Zakir Hussain (C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Dr. Zakir Hussain (D) None of these Ans : (B) 102. When a beam of sun light is passed through a prism, it is seen in how many colours ? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 Ans : (C) 103. Rajendra was born on 3rd March, 1978. Manoj is 4 days elder than Rajendra. If in that year, the Republic Day was celebrated on Saturday, Manoj was born on? (A) Wednesday (B) Friday (C) Tuesday (D) Thursday Ans : (A) 104. How many edges are in a cube ? (A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 16 Ans : (B) 105. In Computer language, CPU means? (A) Computerized Power Unit (B) Central Processing Unit (C) Central Power Unit (D) Central Peripheral Unit Ans : (B) 106. Which of the following works as fuel for human body ? (A) Protein (B) Vitamin (C) Carbohydrate (D) Water Ans : (C) 107. Carrot is the main source of Vitamin? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D Ans : (A) l 108. Which of the folllowing is not correctly matched ? Country ? Capital (A) Russia ? Moscow (B) Nepal ? Kathmandu (C) China ? Tokyo (D) Afghanistan ? Kabul Ans : (C) 109. Who discovered sea route from Europe to India ? (A) Columbus (B) Vasco-de-Gama (C) East India Company (D) Magelan Ans : (B) 110. Two plane mirrors are bent at an angle of 90?, the number of images appearing in the mirrors will be? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (C) RRB Mechanical-Engineering RRB conducts recruitments for various posts.RRB Previous Question Papers for JE SSE Posts, RRB Junior Engineer Previous Question Papers with Answers, RRB JE SSE Solved Papers. This paper contains model questions of RRB JE Mechanical Engineer Technical Questions. RRB JE Mechanical Engineer Technical Questions 1. A.. A single acting reciprocating pump, running at 60 r.p.m, delivers 0.01 m2/sec of water. The area of the piston is 0.05m2 and stroke length is 40 cm. Then theoretical discharge of the pump will be (a) 0.015 m3/sec (b) 0.02 m3/sec (c) 0.025 m3/sec (d) 0.03 m3/sec Ans:- B 2. In question (A), the co-efficient of discharge would be (a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.5 Ans:- D 3. In question (A), the slip of the pump would be (a) 0.02 m3/sec (b) 0.01 m3/sec (c) 0.005 m3/sec (d) 0.003 m3/sec Ans:- B 4. Work done in a free expansion process is a.0 b.minimum c.maximum d. positive 5. In a reciprocating engine a. crankshaft and flywheel form 2 kinematic links b. crankshaft and flywheel form 1 kinematics links c. crankshaft and flywheel do not form kinematic links d. flywheel and crankshaft separately form kinematic links 6. A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when a.none of the link is fixed b.one of the links is fixed c. two of the links are fixed d.all of the links are fixed 7. The impact strength of an material is an index of its a. Toughness b. Tensile strength c. Capability of being cold worked d. Hardness e. Fatigue strength Ans :: a 8. A feeler gauge is used to check a. Radius b. Screw pitch c. Surface roughness d. Unsymmetrical shape e. Thickness of clearance Ans :: e 9. The possibility of negative slip in reciprocating pump is when (a) delivery pipe is short (b) suction pipe is long (c) pump is running at high speed (d) all of the above Ans:- D 10. The slip in the reciprocating pump will be negative if (a) Qth > Qact (b) Qth < Qact (c) Qth = Qact (d) none of the above Ans:- B 11. Thermal efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by a.reheating b.intercooling c.regenerator d. all of the above 12. The power required to drive a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to (a) w.A.L.N / 4500 (b) w.A.L.N.(hs + hd)4500 (c) A.L.N. (hs + hd)/4500 (d) w.L.N/4500 where w = specific weight of water Ans:- B 13. The rate of flow of water through a double acting reciprocating pump is equal to (a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2Ã?60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60 Ans:- B 14. The rate of flow of water through a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to (a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2Ã?60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60 Ans:- A 15. Petrol commercially available in India for Indian passenger cars has octane number in the range A 40 to 50 B 60 to 70 C 80 to 85 D 95 to 100 16. The knocking tendency in C.I engines increases with A decrease of compression ratio B increase of compression ratio C increasing the temperature of inlet air D increasing cooling water temperature 17. The pump, which works on the principle of water hammer, is known as (a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump (c) hydraulic ram (d) none of the above Ans:- C 18. The pump which raises water without any external power for its operation, is known as (a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump (c) hydraulic ram (d) hydraulic intensifier Ans:- C 19. The power at the shaft of a centrifugal pump is 100 KW, and the power available at the impeller is 900 KW. If water horse power is 720 KW, then overall efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be (a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72% Ans:- D 20. Metal in machining operation is removed by a. Tearing chips b. Distortion of metal c. Shearing the metal across a zone d. Cutting the metal across a zone e. Pushing the metal with tool Ans :: c 21. Which one of the following methods produces gear by generating process a. Hobbing b. Casting c. Punching d. Milling e. Broaching Ans :: a 22. The term W.Q.Hm / (75 S.H.P) for a centrifugal pump is known as (a) mechanical efficiency (b) manometric efficiency (c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above Ans:- C 23. If a circular chamber is introduced between the casing and the impeller, then casing is known as (a) vortex casing (b) volute casing (c) casing with guide blades (d) none of the above Ans:- A 24. The rotating part of a turbine is known as (a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism (c) Runner (d) None of the above Ans:- A 25. In case of Kaplan turbine, velocity of flow at inlet is (a) less than that at outlet (b) more than that at outlet (c) equal of that at outlet (d) none of the above Ans:- C RRB RRB Exam Paper 1. A mixture of oil and water contains 35% oil by weight. 265 grams of water is added to 100 grams of such a mixture. What percentage of oil by weight is there in the new mixture? a. 15% b. 25% c. 28% d. 30% e. None of these Ans: c. 2. Rosa can eat 32 rossogollas in one hour. Her sister Lila needs three hours to eat the same number. How much will they take to eat 32 rossogollas together? a. 2 hours b. 90 minutes c. 75 minutes d. 45 minutes e. None of these 3. Which of the following numbers fits into the blank space marked with question mark ? a. 6 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 18 Ans : c 4. The point of concurrence of the three medians of a triangle is called the ???. of the triangle. a. Locus b. Median c. Orthocentre d. Chord e. Centroid 5. The country with the largest land mass is a. United States b. China c. Canada d. Australia e. Russia Ans: d 6. If all Betas are Gammas, all Gammas are Alphas, and all Thetas are Gammas, then a. All Thetas are Betas b. Some Thetas are Betas c. All Gammas are Thetas d. All of the above are true e. None of the above are true Ans: e 7. In the sequence of letters given below, which letters out of the given options fill the blanks to maintain the sequence? A B B D C F D H E ---, --- a. F,I b. J,F c. J,K d. F,G e. E,F Ans: b 8. HIV infection is necessary for having AIDS means a. If you have AIDS, you have HIV b. If you have HIV you have AIDS c. If you don?t have AIDS, then you don?t have HIV d. Either you have HIV or you have AIDS e. None of these Ans: a. 9. Which of the following is least like the other four? a. Horse b. Kangaroo c. Cow d. Deer e. Donkey Ans: b 10.A cube of white material is painted black on all its surfaces. If it is cut into 125 smaller cubes of the same size, then how many cubes will have two sides painted black? a.8 b.22 c.44 d.16 e. None of these Ans: e 11. In one meal, Raja always eats one vegetarian dish out of Potato, Beans and Peas, one dish of cereal out of rice and Chapatti and one non-vegetarian dish out of Chicken, Mutton and Fish. How many combinations can he have of vegetarian , cereal and non-vegetarian dishes? a.9 b.12 c.14 d.15 e.18 Ans: e 12. If y = (x+3)2, then (-2x-6) 2 is equal to a.-4y2 b.-2y2 c.-4y d.2y e.4y Ans: e 13. There are four vacant seats in a cinema hall. How many combinations of four people can sit on those seats? a.12 b.14 c.18 d.24 e. None of these Ans: d 14. Pie (Õ) is a a. Rational number b. Irrational number c. Prime number d. Surd e. None of these Ans: b 15. Supply the missing figure 5/10 * 8/7* 100/50 * 35/40 * ?/16 = 1/8 a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 e. None of these Ans: a 16. Anna is 5 times as old as Rita. In 2 years, Anna will be 3 times as old and in 6 years twice as old. How old will Anna be in 7 years? a. 17 years b. 15 years c. 21 years d. 32 years e. 8 years Ans: a 17. If 10 people can paint 60 houses in 120 days, then 5 people can paint 30 houses in 15 days 30 days 60 days 120 days None of these Ans: d 19.Seth and Guru each have a collection of balls. Seth tells Guru that if he would give him four of his balls, then they would have equal numbers. But if Guru takes 4 (four) balls from him, then Guru would have twice as many. How many balls does Seth have? 20 28 32 40 18 Ans:a 20. Four of the transport forms given below share something in common. Which is the odd man out. a. Cycle b. Aeroplane c. Helicopter d. Scooter e. Car Ans: a 21. if log x + log y = log(x+y),then a. x=y b. xy =1 c. y = x-1/x d. y= x/x-1 e. y = x/x+1 Ans: d 22. If the radius of a sphere is doubled, then its surface area is increased by a. 50% b. 75% c. 100% d. 200% e. None of these Ans: e 23. A trader marks his goods 20% above the cost price and allows a discount of 15%. His percentage gain is a.1% b.2% c.5% d.10% e.15% Ans: b 24. The number of images that can be observed between two parallel mirrors is a. 2 b. 4 c. 1 d. 6 e. infinite Ans: e 25. How many faces are there in an octagonal prism? a. 10 b. 7 c. 9 d. 8 e. None of these Ans: a 26. A baseball team has nine players. After winning a game, each player shook hands with each other just once. How many times didi the players shake hands? a.36 b.81 c.72 d.45 e.None of these Ans: a 27. Which of the following is NOT a mammal? a.Dolphin b. Tiger c. Human d. Crocodile e. Rat Ans:d 28. 84 81 88 14 12 18 9 ? 11 Which of the given options fits correctly in the blank space to exhibit the similar pattern of numbers in each of the three sets above? a.8 b.18 c.16 d.24 e.12 Ans: c 29. A car company sold 150 cars in a special 6 day sale. Each day, the company sold 6 more than the previous day. How many cars were sold on the 6th day? a.60 b.40 c.50 d.35 e.70 Ans: b 30. (Sin 700+ cos 400)/ (cos 700 + sin 400) = ? a.1/root3 b.root3 c.1/2 d.1 e. None of these Ans: b 31. If x = ya , y = zb and z = xc, then the value of abc is a.7 b.2 c.1 d.0 e.None of these Ans:c 32.If a/2b = 3/2, then 2a+b/(a-2b) is equal to a.1/7 b.7 c.14 d.21 e.None of these Ans:b 33. The value of root 0.121 is a.0.11 b.1.1 c.0.011 d.1.01 e. None of these Ans:e 34. Given the sequence of numbers in the first row, which number fits correctly in the bracket in the second line? 41 (28) 27 83 ( ) 65 a.27 b.43 c.36 d.32 e.58 Ans:c 35.The vital constituent of blood that helps in clotting is a.Platelets b.Plasma c. Haemoglobin d. Serum e. Rh factor 36. Which device mixes air and petrol (gas) for the internal combustion engine? a. Carburettor b. Choke c. Crankshaft d. Cylinder e. Gear Ans:d 37. Hormones are controlled by which of the following human body systems? a. Endocrine system b. Circulatory system c. Immune system d. Reproductive system e. Digestive system Ans:a 38. Which of the following is NOT a terrestrial planet (having a hard surface)? a.Mercury b.Venus c.Mars d.Earth e.Jupiter Ans: e 39. Watt-hour is the unit of a.Energy b.Power c.Current d.Potential e. None of these Ans: a 40. If the linear momentum of a particle is doubled, then its kinetic energy will be a.Doubled b.Quadrupled c.Halved d.Same e. None of these Ans:b 41. The device used for converting AC from higher voltage to lower voltage or vice versa is called a. Transmitter b. Commutator c. Alternator d. Transformer e. Generator Ans: d 42. The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is a. 10 cm b. 15 cm c. 45 cm d. 25 cm e. 50 cm Ans:d 43. The colour of light which travels through glass with the minimum speed is a. Red b.Violet c. Green d.Yellow e. None of these Ans: d 44. If two electrically-charged bodies are connected by a wire, then the electric current will not flow if a. Both have the same capacity b. Both have the same temperature c. Both have the same amount of charge d. Both have the same potential e. None of these Ans: d 45. Which civilian award is shaped like a ?peepul leaf?? a.Padma Shree b.Arjuna c. Dronacharya d. Rajiv Khel Ratna e. Bharat Ratna Ans:e 46. The special filters used to reduce pollutants from the exhaust of a car are called a. Water Jacket b. Exhaust manifold c. Baffle plate d. Catalytic convertor e. Washer jet Ans:d 47. Which of the following is an example of class-I lever? a. Pliers b. Nut cracker c. Tongs d. All of these e. None of these Ans:a 48. ?Hubble? is a. An electric car b. The nearesr star c. A space telescope d. A nuclear-powered aeroplane e. A floppy disk Ans:c 49. One complete set of positive and negative values of an alternative quantity is known as a a. Phase b. Time period c. Time period d. Cycle e. None of these 50. The velocity ratio of a screw jack is a.2 Õ l/p b.2 Õp/l c.2 Õ pl d. 2 Õ/ pl e. None of these Ans:a 51. If the load and effort are W and P respectively, then the mechanical advantage (M.A.) is a. P/W b. P x W c. W/P d. P2/W e. None of these Ans:c 52. 600 is equal to a. Õ/3 radians b. 2Õ/3 radians c. 3/Õ radians d. 3Õ/2 radians e. None of these Ans:a 53. Solder is an alloy of a.Brass and copper b. Aluminium and brass c. Aluminium and zinc d. Tin and lead e. None of these Ans:d 54. When the length of a pendulum in a clock is increased, then a. The period increases and the clock loses time b. The period increases and the clock gains time c. The period decreases and the clock loses time d. The period decreases and the clock gains time e. The period remains constant and the clock maintains correct time Ans:a 55. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Solids generally expand on melting. II. Ice contracts on melting III. Density of ice is less than that of water. Codes: a.I b.II c.III d.I & II e. I, II & III Ans: e 56. Which of the following statements is/ are correct ? I. A concave mirror never forms an erect, real image. II. A convex mirror never forms an erect, real image. III. A concave mirror never forms a virtual image. Codes: a. I b. II c.III d. I & II e. I, II & III Ans: d 57.Biogas mainly contains a. Methene b. Ethene c. Hydrogen d. CO e. Hydrogen sulphide Ans: a 58. Two resistance of 3W and 6 W respectively are connected to a battery of 18 V in series. The current passing through the circuit is a. 2A b. 3A c. 6A d. 9A e. 1A Ans: a 59. Echoes are due to a. Refraction of sound waves b. Polarisation of sound waves c. Diffraction of sound waves d. Reflection of sound waves e. None of these Ans:d 60. The force that causes a spring to eventually return to its normal length is called a. Potential force b. Gravitational force c. Spring force d. Restoring force e. Kinetic force Ans:d 61. An air-conditioning system regulates a. Temperature b . Humidity c. Air velocity d. All of these e. None of these Ans:c 62. When a neutral metal sphere is charged by contact with a positively-charged glass rod, then a.The sphere loses electrons b.The sphere gains electrons c. The sphere loses protons d. The sphere gains protons e. There is no change Ans:a 63. The amount of work done against friction to slide a box in a straight line across a uniform, horizontal floor depends most on the a. Time taken to move the box b. Distance box movement c. Speed of the box d. Direction of the box?s motion e. None of these Ans: b 64. If the sum of all the forces acting on a moving object is zero, then the object will a. Slow down and stop b. Change direction of its motion c. Accelerate uniformly d. Continue moving with constant velocity e. Decelerate uniformly Ans: d 65. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence: Since the culprit was caught, the search was called??. a. out b. Away c.Off d. In e. Over Ans: c 66. The phrase ?To sit on the fence? means a. To be lazy b. To look down upon others c. To love nature d. To meditate e. To remain neutral Ans:e 67. Complete the following proverb choosing the correct option: Better late than a.Ever b.Too early c. On time d. Never e. Worse Ans: c 68. Choose the correct spellings: a. Mischievious b. Mischeivious c. Mischievous d. Mischeivous e. Misschievious Ans: c 69. ?The Guide? is a novel written by a. R.K. Narayan b. Mulk Raj Anand c. Rabindranath Tagore d. V.S. Naipaul e. Amrita Pritam Ans: a 70. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence : He insisted ??.. on seeing the documents a.of b. to c. for d.on e.at Ans: d 71. The following phrase can be summed up in a single word. Choose from the options given below : ?Unable to pay one?s debts? a. Extravagant b.Miserly c. Mercenary d. Affluent e. Insolvent Ans: e 72. The state Emblem of India contains sculptures of four animals. Three of them are Elephant, Galloping Horse and lion. Which of the following is the fourth one? a. Bear b. Deer c. Bull d. Cheetah e. Tiger Ans: c 73. If a web-site address in the Intenet reads as ?bluestar@mars.org?, then ?mars.org? stands for a. Member name b. Server c. Domain name d. Range name e. Search engine name Ans: c 74.?World wide Web? contains which kind of information? a. Text only b. Picture only c. Audio and text only d. Text and pictures only e. Text, pictures and audio Ans:e 75. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called a. Nether lands b.Scandinavia c. Balkan d. Australasia e. Slovakia Ans:b 76. Ustad Amjad Ali is a distinguished player of a.Sitar b. Sarod c. Violin d. Tabla e. Veena Ans:b 77. The first Indian to swim across the English Channel was Arati Saha Koneru Humpy Mihir Sen Anita Sood Nafisa Ali Ans: a 78. The first woman Chief Minister of an Indian State was a. Sucheta Kriplani b. Vijay Lakshmi Pandit c. Nandini Satpathy d. Sarojini Naidu e. Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur Ans: a 79. Like the Guinness Book of World Records, we have the a. Manorama Record Book b. The Himalaya Book c. The Tata Book of Records d. The Limca Book of records e. The Book of Epic Records Ans: d 80. ?Glaucoma and Trachoma? are the diseases of a. Neck b. Ears c. Brain d. Eyes e. Liver Ans: d RRB Question Papers with answer RRB's latest solved Questions papers Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam - Question Paper Solved 1. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started? (a) 1982 (b) 1989 (c) 1984 (d) 1992 Answer: C 2. Shatabdi Express train was started in(a) 1984 (b) 1988 (c) 1990 (d) 1985 Answer: B 3. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established? (a) Jamshedpur (b) Patiala (c) Perambur (d) Varanasi Answer: B 4. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways? (a) Central Railway (b) Northern Railway (c) Eastern Railway (d) Western Railway Answer: C 5. The railway station situated in the extreme south is (a) Chennai (b) Cochin (c) Kanyakumari (d) Trivandrum Answer: C 6. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called (a) dock platform (b) passenger platform (c) island platform (d) goods platform Answer: C 7. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done? (a) 1952 (b) 1950 (c) 1951 (d) 1954 Answer: B 8. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established? (a) 1954 (b) 1957 (c) 1959 (d) 1967 Answer: B 9. Railway Staff College is situated at (a) Bangalore (b) Secundrabad (c) Chennai (d) Vadodara Answer: D 10. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated? (a) Lucknow (b) Bangalore (c) Pune (d) New Delhi Answer: A 11. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true? (a) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad (b) Central railway - Bhopal (c) South Railway - Chennai (d) North Railway - New Delhi Answer: B 12. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started? (a) From Calcutta to Delhi (b) From Mumbai to Thane (c) From Mumbai to Surat (d) From Mumbai to Madras Answer: B 13. When was the first train in Indian started? (a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854 Answer: C 14. In which Governor-General?s reign railway lines in India were established? (a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Kenning (d) Lord Dalhousie Answer: D 15. A station where the rail lines end, is called (a) junction station (b) way-side-station (c) block station (d) terminal station Answer: D 16. How much distance was traveled by first train of India? (a) 33 km (b) 36 km (c) 34 km (d) 46 km Answer: C 17. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth Answer: D 18. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)? (a) 4300 Km (b) 3700 Km (c) 4290 km (d) 5298 km Answer: B 19. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) New Delhi Answer: C 20. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established? (a) 15th Jan, 1958 (b) 15th Jan, 1955 (c) 2nd Jan, 1956 (d) 14th April, 1952 Answer: A 21. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is (a) Calcutta (b) Maligaon (Guwahati) (c) Chennai (d) Gorakhpur Answer: B 22. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Calcutta (d) Chennai Answer: C 23. General Manger is responsible for (a) Railway Board (b) Railway Ministry (c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry (d) None of these Answer: A 24. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Chennai (c) Secundrabad (d) Mumbai (Central) Answer: C 25. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at (a) New Delhi (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) Mumbai (V.T) Answer: A 26. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at (a) Calcutta (b) Chennai (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai Answer: B 27. In which institution the training of electric work is being given? (a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering (b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering (c) Railway Staff College (d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Answer: B 28. Who invented the railway engine? (a) Charles Babbage (b) Isaac Newton (c) James Watt (d) George Stephenson Answer: D 29. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Insttitue situated? (a) Nasik (b) Baroda (c) Jamalpur (d) Pune Answer: C 30. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States? (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu Answer: C 31.The zone with the minimum length is (a) North-Eastern Railway (b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway (c) South-East Railway (d) South-Central Railway Answer: B 32. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated? (a) Pune (b) Chennai (c) Nasik (d) Sikandrabad Answer: A 33. How many training institutions of Railways are in India? (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six Answer: C 34. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Forth Answer: B 35. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas? (a) Broad gauge (b) Meter gauge (c) Narrow gauge (d) Special gauge Answer: C 36. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station? (a) Jammutavi (b) Amritsar (c) Pathancoat (d) Guwahat Answer: A 37. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four Answer: B 38. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at (a) Perambur (b) Varanasi (c) Kapurthala (d) Bangalore Answer: B 39. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in (a) 1974 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1973 Answer: C 40. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places? (a) Kapurthala (b) Chittranjan (c) Perambur (d) Bangalore Answer: C 41. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided in how many regions? (a) 7(b) 9 (c) 8(d) 10 Answer: B 42. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project? (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat (d) Andhra Pradesh Answer: A 43. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in which year? (a) 1988 (b) 1972 (c) 1982 (d) 1965 Answer: C 44. When was the Central Railway established? (a) 5th Nov 1951 (b) 14th Nov 1951 (c) 14th April 1951 (d) 16th August, 1951 Answer: A 45. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones? (a) Northern region (b) Western region (c) North-Western region (d) Central Region Answer: B 46. The largest national enterprise of India is (a) Indian Railway (b) Indian Shipyard (c) Airways (d) None of these Answer: A 47. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittaranjan on (a) November 1950 (b) October 1950 (c) September 1949 (d) October 1954 Answer: A 48. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated? (a) Chittranjan (b) Kapurthala (c) Bangalore (d) Perambur Answer: C 49. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway? (a) 1965 (b) 1963 (c) 1967 (d) 1965 Answer: D 50. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated? (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Mumbai (Church Gate) (c) Gwalior (d) Gorakhpur Answer: A Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam - Question Paper Solved 1. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started? (a) 1982 (b) 1989 (c) 1984 (d) 1992 Answer: C 2. Shatabdi Express train was started in (a) 1984 (b) 1988 (c) 1990 (d) 1985 Answer: B 3. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established? (a) Jamshedpur (b) Patiala (c) Perambur (d) Varanasi Answer: B 4. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways? (a) Central Railway (b) Northern Railway (c) Eastern Railway (d) Western Railway Answer: C 5. The railway station situated in the extreme south is (a) Chennai (b) Cochin (c) Kanyakumari (d) Trivandrum Answer: C 6. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called (a) dock platform (b) passenger platform (c) island platform (d) goods platform Answer: C 7. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done? (a) 1952 (b) 1950 (c) 1951 (d) 1954 Answer: B 8. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established? (a) 1954 (b) 1957 (c) 1959 (d) 1967 Answer: B 9. Railway Staff College is situated at (a) Bangalore (b) Secundrabad (c) Chennai (d) Vadodara Answer: D 10. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated? (a) Lucknow (b) Bangalore (c) Pune (d) New Delhi Answer: A 11. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true? (a) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad (b) Central railway - Bhopal (c) South Railway - Chennai (d) North Railway - New Delhi Answer: B 12. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started? (a) From Calcutta to Delhi (b) From Mumbai to Thane (c) From Mumbai to Surat (d) From Mumbai to Madras Answer: B 13. When was the first train in Indian started? (a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854 Answer: C 14. In which Governor-General?s reign railway lines in India were established? (a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Kenning (d) Lord Dalhousie Answer: D 15. A station where the rail lines end, is called (a) junction station (b) way-side-station (c) block station (d) terminal station Answer: D 16. How much distance was traveled by first train of India? (a) 33 km (b) 36 km (c) 34 km (d) 46 km Answer: C 17. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth Answer: D 18. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)? (a) 4300 Km (b) 3700 Km (c) 4290 km (d) 5298 km Answer: B 19. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) New Delhi Answer: C 20. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established? (a) 15th Jan, 1958 (b) 15th Jan, 1955 (c) 2nd Jan, 1956 (d) 14th April, 1952 Answer: A 21. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is (a) Calcutta (b) Maligaon (Guwahati) (c) Chennai (d) Gorakhpur Answer: B 22. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Calcutta (d) Chennai Answer: C 23. General Manger is responsible for (a) Railway Board (b) Railway Ministry (c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry (d) None of these Answer: A 24. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Chennai (c) Secundrabad (d) Mumbai (Central) Answer: C 25. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at (a) New Delhi (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) Mumbai (V.T) Answer: A 26. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at (a) Calcutta (b) Chennai (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai Answer: B 27. In which institution the training of electric work is being given? (a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering (b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering (c) Railway Staff College (d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Answer: B 28. Who invented the railway engine? (a) Charles Babbage (b) Isaac Newton (c) James Watt (d) George Stephenson Answer: D 29. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Insttitue situated? (a) Nasik (b) Baroda (c) Jamalpur (d) Pune Answer: C 30. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States? (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu Answer: C 31.The zone with the minimum length is (a) North-Eastern Railway (b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway (c) South-East Railway (d) South-Central Railway Answer: B 32. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated? (a) Pune (b) Chennai (c) Nasik (d) Sikandrabad Answer: A 33. How many training institutions of Railways are in India? (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six Answer: C 34. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Forth Answer: B 35. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas? (a) Broad gauge (b) Meter gauge (c) Narrow gauge (d) Special gauge Answer: C 36. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station? (a) Jammutavi (b) Amritsar (c) Pathancoat (d) Guwahat Answer: A 37. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four Answer: B 38. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at (a) Perambur (b) Varanasi (c) Kapurthala (d) Bangalore Answer: B 39. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in (a) 1974 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1973 Answer: C 40. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places? (a) Kapurthala (b) Chittranjan (c) Perambur (d) Bangalore Answer: C 41. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided in how many regions? (a) 7(b) 9 (c) 8(d) 10 Answer: B 42. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project? (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat (d) Andhra Pradesh Answer: A 43. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in which year? (a) 1988 (b) 1972 (c) 1982 (d) 1965 Answer: C 44. When was the Central Railway established? (a) 5th Nov 1951 (b) 14th Nov 1951 (c) 14th April 1951 (d) 16th August, 1951 Answer: A 45. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones? (a) Northern region (b) Western region (c) North-Western region (d) Central Region Answer: B 46. The largest national enterprise of India is (a) Indian Railway (b) Indian Shipyard (c) Airways (d) None of these Answer: A 47. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittaranjan on (a) November 1950 (b) October 1950 (c) September 1949 (d) October 1954 Answer: A 48. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated? (a) Chittranjan (b) Kapurthala (c) Bangalore (d) Perambur Answer: C 49. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway? (a) 1965 (b) 1963 (c) 1967 (d) 1965 Answer: D 50. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated? (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Mumbai (Church Gate) (c) Gwalior (d) Gorakhpur Answer: A 1. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ? (A) Muktasar (B) Ludhiana (C) Patiala (D) Chandigarh Ans : (D) 2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ? (A) Heat is absorbed B) Heat is released (C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged (D) None of these Ans : (A) 3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ? (A) Zenon (B) Argon (C) Helium (D) Chlorine Ans : (D) 4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ? (A) Solid (B) Gas (C) Liquid (D) None of these Ans : (B) 5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ? (A) 30°C (B) 27°C (C) 300°C (D) None of these Ans : (B) 6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in? (A) Japan (B) China (C) North Korea (D) Singapore Ans : (D) 7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ? (A) Mysore (B) Kanchipuram (C) Madurai (D) Delhi Ans : (C) 8. Tripitik is the scripture of? (A) Jain religion (B) Hindu religion (C) Buddhishtha religion (D) Muslim religion Ans : (C) 9. Who is the author of ?Adhe-Adhure? ? (A) Mohan Rakesh (B) Prem Chand (C) Nirala (D) Pant Ans : (A) 10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included fundamental duties into the Constitution ? (A) 42nd (B) 43rd (C) 44th (D) 39th Ans : (A) 11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ? (A) Delhi (B) Anand (C) Ahmedabad (D) Mysore Ans : (D) 12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ? (A) Nonviolence (B) Violence (C) Triratna (D) Truth Ans : (A) 13. Light-year measures which of the following ? (A) Intensity of light (B) Mass (C) Time (D) Distance Ans : (D) 14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ? (A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Ethylene (D) Acetylene Ans : (C) 15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ? (A) Aravind Ghosh (B) P. C. Banerjee (C) Bipin Chandra Paul (D) Chandrashekhar Azad Ans : (A) 16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ? (A) Humayun (B) Akbar (C) Shahjahan (D) Jahangir Ans : (D) 17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in organic compounds ? (A) Phosphorus (B) Sulphur (C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 18?21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below : 18. EWE (A) Calf (B) Female sheep (C) Deer (D) None of these Ans : (B) 19. Buffalo (A) Calf (B) Baby box (C) Baby bison (D) Baby cow Ans : (C) 20. Veneration? (A) Esteem (B) High respect (C) Devotion (D) Worship Ans : (B) 21. Vicious? (A) Remorseless (B) Ferocious (C) Kind (D) Wicked Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 22?25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in meaning to the words in question : 22. Bizarre (A) Colourful (B) Odd (C) Insipid (D) Smart Ans : (B) 23. Innuendo (A) Narration (B) Insinuation (C) Insist (D) Insutale Ans : (B) 24. Salutary (A) Welcome (B) Discharge (C) Promoting (D) Remove Ans : (C) 25. Fictile (A) Fiction (B) Moulded (C) Fictitious (D) Smooth Ans : (B) 26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as? (A) Soft ice (B) Dry ice (C) White ice (D) None of these Ans : (B) 27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling point. The heat absorbed in the process is called? (A) Latent heat of vaporisation (B) Latent heat of fusion (C) Latent heat of sublimation (D) None of these Ans : (A) 28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online admission at all levels with immediate effect ? (i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily. (ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges and standing in queue. (A) Only argument (i) is correct (B) Only argument (ii) is correct (C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct (D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct Ans : (D) 29. The product ?Fair and Lovely? is related to? (A) WIPRO (B) I.T.C. P & G (D) H.U.L. Ans : (D) 30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ? (i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management. (ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or government?s, should adopt the same entrance standard. (A) Only argument (i) is correct (B) Only argument (ii) is correct (C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct (D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct Ans : (B) 31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to? (A) Prime Minister (B) Chief Justice (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) Vice-President Ans : (D) 32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is? (A) Silver (B) Copper (C) Manganese (D) Aluminium Ans : (D) 33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which? (A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around (B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around (C) There is low pressure all around (D) None of these Ans : (A) 34. The ?Ocean of Storms? is the name given to? (A) Atlantic Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) A waterless area on moon surface (D) None of these Ans : (C) 35. The capital of Pallavas was? (A) Arcot (B) Kanchi (C) Malkhed (D) Banavasi Ans : (B) 36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by LONELY PLANET? (A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Kerala (D) Uttarakhand Ans : (C) 37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ? (A) 65% (B) 70% (C) 60% (D) None of these Ans : (B) 38. What determines the sex of a child ? (A) Chromosomes of the father (B) Chromosomes of the mother (C) RH factor of the parents (D) Blood group of the father Ans : (A) 39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Art are? (A) Indian and Roman (B) Indian and Egyptian (C) Greek and Roman (D) Indian and Greek Ans : (D) 40. ?Thinkpad? is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ? (A) HP (B) TCS (C) Infosys (D) IBM Ans : (D) 41. The first summit of SAARC was held at? (A) Kathmandu (B) Colombo (C) New Delhi (D) Dhaka Ans : (D) 42. The wire of flash bulb is made of? (A) Copper (B) Barium (C) Magnesium (D) Silver Ans : (C) 43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed temperatures are called? (A) Isochors (B) Isothermals (C) V.T.P. Curves (D) Isocurves Ans : (B) 44. Project Tiger was launched in? (A) 1973 (B) 1976 (C) 1978 (D) 1983 Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement. 45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alpha bet ? (A) None (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (B) 46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set. Given set (23, 29, 31)? (A) (17, 21, 29) (B) (31, 37, 49) (C) (13, 15, 23) (D) (41, 43, 47) Ans : (D) Directions?What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ? 47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 ??? (A) 2456415 (B) 2235675 (C) 2980565 (D) 2714985 Ans : (D) 48. If ?VEHEMENT? is written as ?VEHETNEM? then in that code how will you code ?MOURNFUL? ? (A) MOURLUFN (B) MOUNULFR (C) OURMNFUL (D) URNFULMO Ans : (A) 49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ? (A) Gratify (B) Avarice (C) Accessory (D) Amend Ans : (C) 50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ? (A) Praduman (B) Janaki (C) Shreshtha (D) Chhama Ans : (D) 51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ? (A) 29 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 27 Ans : (B) 52. Which number is missing ? 45389, ?, 453, 34 (A) 34780 (B) 8354 (C) 4892 (D) 3478 Ans : (B) 53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end ? (A) A (B) C (C) B (D) K Ans : (D) 54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number ? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) More than three Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case. 55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ? (A) Ignorance (B) Knowledge (C) Author (D) Teacher Ans : (A) 56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ? (A) Signal (B) Vehicle (C) Motion (D) Lane Ans : (A) 57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses (A) Leave (B) Permit (C) Agency (D) Policy Ans : (D) 58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ? (A) 14 (B) 20 (C) 19 (D) 17 Ans : (B) 59. Pick out the odd in the following? (A) Ashok?Assam (B) Poonam?Punjab (C) Gyanendra?Gujarat (D) Anjana?Rajasthan Ans : (D) 60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ? (A) 45 (B) 37 (C) 50 (D) 40 Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) 61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ? (A) 13?5 (B) 4?5 (C) 16?5 (D) 7?5 Ans : (D) 62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555 (A) 606 (B) 646 (C) 586 (D) 716 Ans : (C) 63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is? (A) 32976 (B) 32679 (C) 32769 (D) None of these Ans : (A) 64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ??? sq cm. (A) 9 (B) 4 (C) 36 (D) 13 Ans : (C) 65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2 Ans : (B) 66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth ??? cm. (A) 64 (B) 32 (C) 16 (D) 8 Ans : (D) 67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ? (A) 40 (B) 60 (C) 80 (D) 20 Ans : (D) 68. What is the meaning of beckoned ? (A) Summon by sign or gesture (B) Did not signal (C) Did not call (D) Invite Ans : (A) 69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find the number of coins of each value. (A) 500 (B) 400 (C) 700 (D) 600 Ans : (D) 70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ??? sq cm. (A) 120 (B) 12 (C) 20 (D) 240 Ans : (A) 71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is? (A) 41 (B) 51 (C) 61 (D) 42 Ans : (A) 72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if 1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ? (A) 700 (B) 650 (C) 720 (D) 750 Ans : (C) 73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the remainder is 58, the dividend is? (A) 40458 (B) 34058 (C) 43058 (D) 40358 Ans : (D) 74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37?50, find the no. of days he was absent? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4 Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word ? 75. Quixotic (A) Visionary (B) Whimsical (C) Realistic (D) Foolish Ans : (C) 76. Rabid (A) Mad (B) Normal (C) Furious (D) Fanatical Ans : (B) 77. Scurrilous (A) Inoffensive (B) Vulgar (C) Insulting (D) Coarse Ans : (A) 78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ? (A) 483 (B) 766 (C) 674 (D) 598 Ans : (D) 79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ? (A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 1 (D) 25 Ans : (C) 80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the following colours refracts the most ? (A) Blue (B) Red (C) Orange (D) Green Ans : (A) 81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460. What is that number ? (A) 109 (B) 112 (C) 111 (D) 115 Ans : (B) 82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59% of this number ? (A) 900 (B) 420 (C) 885 (D) None of these Ans : (C) 83. A?B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then, what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S ? T ? (A) Son (B) Daughter (C) Sister (D) Wife Ans : (C) 84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of the following dynasties ? (A) Rashtrakoot (B) Pallav (C) Pala (D) Chola Ans : (A) 85. But for the Surgeon?s skill, the patient ??? died. (A) may have (B) must have (C) should have (D) would have Ans : (D) 86. I want to see the Principal, ?? I have something to tell him urgently. (A) so (B) for (C) since (D) and Ans : (C) 87. I wasn?t really listening and didn?t ??? what he said. (A) catch (B) receive (C) accept (D) take Ans : (A) 88. The first division of Congress took place in? (A) Surat (B) Kolkata (C) Allahabad (D) Chennai Ans : (A) 89. What is ginger ? (A) Flower (B) Root (C) Stem (D) Leaf Ans : (B) 90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ? (A) Udaigiri (B) Dhauli (C) Balasore (D) Barabaki Ans : (B) 91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the following places of Orissa ? (A) Beharampur (B) Sunabeda (C) Koraput (D) Sambalpur Ans : (C) RRB Question Papers with answer RRB Objective Question, English Question ,Numerical Question etc. RRB Question Paper: 1. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ? (A) Muktasar (B) Ludhiana (C) Patiala (D) Chandigarh Ans : (D) 2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ? (A) Heat is absorbed B) Heat is released (C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged (D) None of these Ans : (A) 3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ? (A) Zenon (B) Argon (C) Helium (D) Chlorine Ans : (D) 4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ? (A) Solid (B) Gas (C) Liquid (D) None of these Ans : (B) 5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ? (A) 30°C (B) 27°C (C) 300°C (D) None of these Ans : (B) 6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in? (A) Japan (B) China (C) North Korea (D) Singapore Ans : (D) 7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ? (A) Mysore (B) Kanchipuram (C) Madurai (D) Delhi Ans : (C) 8. Tripitik is the scripture of? (A) Jain religion (B) Hindu religion (C) Buddhishtha religion (D) Muslim religion Ans : (C) 9. Who is the author of ?Adhe-Adhure? ? (A) Mohan Rakesh (B) Prem Chand (C) Nirala (D) Pant Ans : (A) 10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included fundamental duties into the Constitution ? (A) 42nd (B) 43rd (C) 44th (D) 39th Ans : (A) 11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ? (A) Delhi (B) Anand (C) Ahmedabad (D) Mysore Ans : (D) 12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ? (A) Nonviolence (B) Violence (C) Triratna (D) Truth Ans : (A) 13. Light-year measures which of the following ? (A) Intensity of light (B) Mass (C) Time (D) Distance Ans : (D) 14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ? (A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Ethylene (D) Acetylene Ans : (C) 15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ? (A) Aravind Ghosh (B) P. C. Banerjee (C) Bipin Chandra Paul (D) Chandrashekhar Azad Ans : (A) 16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ? (A) Humayun (B) Akbar (C) Shahjahan (D) Jahangir Ans : (D) 17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in organic compounds ? (A) Phosphorus (B) Sulphur (C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 18?21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below : 18. EWE (A) Calf (B) Female sheep (C) Deer (D) None of these Ans : (B) 19. Buffalo (A) Calf (B) Baby box (C) Baby bison (D) Baby cow Ans : (C) 20. Veneration? (A) Esteem (B) High respect (C) Devotion (D) Worship Ans : (B) 21. Vicious? (A) Remorseless (B) Ferocious (C) Kind (D) Wicked Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 22?25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in meaning to the words in question : 22. Bizarre (A) Colourful (B) Odd (C) Insipid (D) Smart Ans : (B) 23. Innuendo (A) Narration (B) Insinuation (C) Insist (D) Insutale Ans : (B) 24. Salutary (A) Welcome (B) Discharge (C) Promoting (D) Remove Ans : (C) 25. Fictile (A) Fiction (B) Moulded (C) Fictitious (D) Smooth Ans : (B) 26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as? (A) Soft ice (B) Dry ice (C) White ice (D) None of these Ans : (B) 27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling point. The heat absorbed in the process is called? (A) Latent heat of vaporisation (B) Latent heat of fusion (C) Latent heat of sublimation (D) None of these Ans : (A) 28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online admission at all levels with immediate effect ? (i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily. (ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges and standing in queue. (A) Only argument (i) is correct (B) Only argument (ii) is correct (C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct (D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct Ans : (D) 29. The product ?Fair and Lovely? is related to? (A) WIPRO (B) I.T.C. (C) P & G (D) H.U.L. Ans : (D) 30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ? (i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management. (ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or government?s, should adopt the same entrance standard. (A) Only argument (i) is correct (B) Only argument (ii) is correct (C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct (D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct Ans : (B) 31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to? (A) Prime Minister (B) Chief Justice (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) Vice-President Ans : (D) 32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is? (A) Silver (B) Copper (C) Manganese (D) Aluminium Ans : (D) 33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which? (A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around (B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around (C) There is low pressure all around (D) None of these Ans : (A) 34. The ?Ocean of Storms? is the name given to? (A) Atlantic Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) A waterless area on moon surface (D) None of these Ans : (C) 35. The capital of Pallavas was? (A) Arcot (B) Kanchi (C) Malkhed (D) Banavasi Ans : (B) 36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by LONELY PLANET? (A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Kerala (D) Uttarakhand Ans : (C) 37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ? (A) 65% (B) 70% (C) 60% (D) None of these Ans : (B) 38. What determines the sex of a child ? (A) Chromosomes of the father (B) Chromosomes of the mother (C) RH factor of the parents (D) Blood group of the father Ans : (A) 39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Art are? (A) Indian and Roman (B) Indian and Egyptian (C) Greek and Roman (D) Indian and Greek Ans : (D) 40. ?Thinkpad? is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ? (A) HP (B) TCS (C) Infosys (D) IBM Ans : (D) 41. The first summit of SAARC was held at? (A) Kathmandu (B) Colombo (C) New Delhi (D) Dhaka Ans : (D) 42. The wire of flash bulb is made of? (A) Copper (B) Barium (C) Magnesium (D) Silver Ans : (C) 43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed temperatures are called? (A) Isochors (B) Isothermals (C) V.T.P. Curves (D) Isocurves Ans : (B) 44. Project Tiger was launched in? (A) 1973 (B) 1976 (C) 1978 (D) 1983 Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement. 45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alpha bet ? (A) None (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (B) 46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set. Given set (23, 29, 31)? (A) (17, 21, 29) (B) (31, 37, 49) (C) (13, 15, 23) (D) (41, 43, 47) Ans : (D) Directions?What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series 47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 ??? (A) 2456415 (B) 2235675 (C) 2980565 (D) 2714985 Ans : (D) 48. If ?VEHEMENT? is written as ?VEHETNEM? then in that code how will you code ?MOURNFUL? ? (A) MOURLUFN (B) MOUNULFR (C) OURMNFUL (D) URNFULMO Ans : (A) 49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ? (A) Gratify (B) Avarice (C) Accessory (D) Amend Ans : (C) 50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ? (A) Praduman (B) Janaki (C) Shreshtha (D) Chhama Ans : (D) 51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ? (A) 29 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 27 Ans : (B) 52. Which number is missing ? 45389, ?, 453, 34 (A) 34780 (B) 8354 (C) 4892 (D) 3478 Ans : (B) 53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end ? (A) A (B) C (C) B (D) K Ans : (D) 54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number ? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) More than three Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case. 55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ? (A) Ignorance (B) Knowledge (C) Author (D) Teacher Ans : (A) 56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ? (A) Signal (B) Vehicle (C) Motion (D) Lane Ans : (A) 57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses (A) Leave (B) Permit (C) Agency (D) Policy Ans : (D) 58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ? (A) 14 (B) 20 (C) 19 (D) 17 Ans : 59. Pick out the odd in the following? (A) Ashok?Assam (B) Poonam?Punjab (C) Gyanendra?Gujarat (D) Anjana?Rajasthan Ans : (D) 60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ? (A) 45 (B) 37 (C) 50 (D) 40 Ans : (D) RRB ASM Questions with answers RRB Bhubaneshwar | ASM Written Exam Solved Paper Directions?(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) 31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to? (A) Prime Minister (B) Chief Justice (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) Vice-President Ans : (D) 32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is? (A) Silver (B) Copper (C) Manganese (D) Aluminium Ans : (D) 33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which? (A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around (B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around (C) There is low pressure all around (D) None of these Ans : (A) 34. The ?Ocean of Storms? is the name given to? (A) Atlantic Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) A waterless area on moon surface (D) None of these Ans : (C) 35. The capital of Pallavas was? (A) Arcot (B) Kanchi (C) Malkhed (D) Banavasi Ans : (B) 36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by LONELY PLANET? (A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Kerala (D) Uttarakhand Ans : (C) 37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ? (A) 65% (B) 70% (C) 60% (D) None of these Ans : (B) 38. What determines the sex of a child ? (A) Chromosomes of the father (B) Chromosomes of the mother (C) RH factor of the parents (D) Blood group of the father Ans : (A) 39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Art are? (A) Indian and Roman (B) Indian and Egyptian (C) Greek and Roman (D) Indian and Greek Ans : (D) 40. ?Thinkpad? is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ? (A) HP (B) TCS (C) Infosys (D) IBM Ans : (D) 41. The first summit of SAARC was held at? (A) Kathmandu (B) Colombo (C) New Delhi (D) Dhaka Ans : (D) 42. The wire of flash bulb is made of? (A) Copper (B) Barium (C) Magnesium (D) Silver Ans : (C) 43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed temperatures are called? (A) Isochors (B) Isothermals (C) V.T.P. Curves (D) Isocurves Ans : (B) 44. Project Tiger was launched in? (A) 1973 (B) 1976 (C) 1978 (D) 1983 Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement. 45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alpha bet ? (A) None (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (B) 46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set. Given set (23, 29, 31)? (A) (17, 21, 29) (B) (31, 37, 49) (C) (13, 15, 23) (D) (41, 43, 47) Ans : (D) Directions?What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series 47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 ??? (A) 2456415 (B) 2235675 (C) 2980565 (D) 2714985 Ans : (D) 48. If ?VEHEMENT? is written as ?VEHETNEM? then in that code how will you code ?MOURNFUL? ? (A) MOURLUFN (B) MOUNULFR (C) OURMNFUL (D) URNFULMO Ans : (A) 49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ? (A) Gratify (B) Avarice (C) Accessory (D) Amend Ans : (C) 50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ? (A) Praduman (B) Janaki (C) Shreshtha (D) Chhama Ans : (D) 51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ? (A) 29 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 27 Ans : (B) 52. Which number is missing ? 45389, ?, 453, 34 (A) 34780 (B) 8354 (C) 4892 (D) 3478 Ans : (B) 53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end ? (A) A (B) C (C) B (D) K Ans : (D) 54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number ? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) More than three Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case. 55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ? (A) Ignorance (B) Knowledge (C) Author (D) Teacher Ans : (A) 56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ? (A) Signal (B) Vehicle (C) Motion (D) Lane Ans : (A) 57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses (A) Leave (B) Permit (C) Agency (D) Policy Ans : (D) 58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ? (A) 14 (B) 20 (C) 19 (D) 17 Ans : (B) 59. Pick out the odd in the following? (A) Ashok?Assam (B) Poonam?Punjab (C) Gyanendra?Gujarat (D) Anjana?Rajasthan Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 60 and 63) What approximate value should come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) 60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ? (A) 45 (B) 37 (C) 50 (D) 40 Ans : (D) 61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ? (A) 13?5 (B) 4?5 (C) 16?5 (D) 7?5 Ans : (D) 62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555 (A) 606 (B) 646 (C) 586 (D) 716 Ans : (C) 63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is? (A) 32976 (B) 32679 (C) 32769 (D) None of these Ans : (A) 64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ??? sq cm. (A) 9 (B) 4 (C) 36 (D) 13 Ans : (C) 65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2 Ans : (B) 66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ??? cm. (A) 64 (B) 32 (C) 16 (D) 8 Ans : (D) 67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ? (A) 40 (B) 60 (C) 80 (D) 20 Ans : (D) 68. What is the meaning of beckoned ? (A) Summon by sign or gesture (B) Did not signal (C) Did not call (D) Invite Ans : (A) 69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find the number of coins of each value. (A) 500 (B) 400 (C) 700 (D) 600 Ans : (D) 70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ??? sq cm. (A) 120 (B) 12 (C) 20 (D) 240 Ans : (A) 71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is? (A) 41 (B) 51 (C) 61 (D) 42 Ans : (A) 72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if 1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ? (A) 700 (B) 650 (C) 720 (D) 750 Ans : (C) 73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the remainder is 58, the dividend is? (A) 40458 (B) 34058 (C) 43058 (D) 40358 Ans : (D) 74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37?50, find the no. of days he was absent? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4 Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word ? 75. Quixotic (A) Visionary (B) Whimsical (C) Realistic (D) Foolish Ans : (C) 76. Rabid (A) Mad (B) Normal (C) Furious (D) Fanatical Ans : (B) 77. Scurrilous (A) Inoffensive (B) Vulgar (C) Insulting (D) Coarse Ans : (A) 78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ? (A) 483 (B) 766 (C) 674 (D) 598 Ans : (D) 79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ? (A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 1 (D) 25 Ans : (C) 80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the following colours refracts the most ? (A) Blue (B) Red (C) Orange (D) Green Ans : (A) 81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460. What is that number ? (A) 109 (B) 112 (C) 111 (D) 115 Ans : (B) 82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59% of this number ? (A) 900 (B) 420 (C) 885 (D) None of these Ans : (C) 83. A?B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then, what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S ? T ? (A) Son (B) Daughter (C) Sister (D) Wife Ans : (C) 84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of the following dynasties ? (A) Rashtrakoot (B) Pallav (C) Pala (D) Chola Ans : (A) 85. But for the Surgeon?s skill, the patient ??? died. (A) may have (B) must have (C) should have (D) would have Ans : (D) 86. I want to see the Principal, ?? I have something to tell him urgently. (A) so (B) for (C) since (D) and Ans : (C) 87. I wasn?t really listening and didn?t ??? what he said. (A) catch (B) receive (C) accept (D) take Ans : (A) 88. The first division of Congress took place in? (A) Surat (B) Kolkata (C) Allahabad (D) Chennai Ans : (A) 89. What is ginger ? (A) Flower (B) Root (C) Stem (D) Leaf Ans : (B) 90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ? (A) Udaigiri (B) Dhauli (C) Balasore (D) Barabaki Ans : (B) 91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the following places of Orissa ? (A) Beharampur (B) Sunabeda (C) Koraput (D) Sambalpur Ans : (C) RRB solved papers (Paper) Multiple Choice Questions Exam Paper For Railway Engineering (RRB): SOLVED Second paper: 92. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called: (a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve (c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve Ans : B 92. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on: (a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents Ans : B 93. The track capacity can be increased by: (a) Faster movement of trains on the track (b) By using more powerful engines (c) All the above (d) None of the above Ans : C 94. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called: (a) terminal station (b) flag station (c) way side station (d) junction station Ans : D 95. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is: (a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm Ans : A 96. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as: (a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart (c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart Ans: C 97. The most common system of signaling in India is the ?? system. (a) automatic block (b) section clear system (c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system Ans : C 98. The feeder gauge ?. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc. (a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m Ans : A 99. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track: (a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt Ans : B 100. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called: (a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient Ans : B 101. Points and crossings are provided for change of ?.on permanent ways. (a) gauge (b) direction and gradient (c) direction (d) gradient Ans : C 102. In locomotive ?hunting? is: (a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track (b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track (c) Motion after brakes have been applied (d) Combination of A and B above Ans : D 103. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called: (a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails (c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails Ans : A 104. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is: (a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m Ans : B 105. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be: (a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m Ans : B 106. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than: (a) 305 m (b) 183 m c) 495 m (d) 250 m Ans : A 107. Generally the shape of fish plate is: (a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular Ans : B 108. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be: (a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm Ans : C 109. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is: (a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM (c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM Ans : B 110. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called (a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient Ans : D 111. The latest system of signaling introduced is: (a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system (c) section clear system (d) automatic block system Ans : A 112. Detonating signals are used: (a) for noisy engines (b) during foggy and cloudy weather (c) for deaf drivers (d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only Ans : B 113. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally: (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6 Ans : A 114. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called: (a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway (c) Railway (d) Tube railway Ans : D 115. The art of providing an outward slope of ?. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels. (a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20 Ans : D 116. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are: (a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers (c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable Ans : C 117. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as: (a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch (c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch Ans : B 118. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as: (a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard (c) marshalling yard (d) station yard Ans : C 119. Wider gauge permits: (a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load (c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves Ans : C 120. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life? (a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine (c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine And : B 121. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as: (a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare Ans : A 122. The creep in rails is measured in: (a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm Ans : B 123. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than ?., should not be used on any track under any circumstances. (a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20% Ans : C 124. In railways, super elevation is provided to: (a) facilitate drainage (b) counteract the centrifugal push (c) counteract the centripetal pull (d) have all the effects mentioned above Ans : B 125. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called: (a) running line (b) loop line (c) main (d) none are correct Ans : B 126. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as: (a) Guard (b) Wing (c) Check rails d) Lead rails Ans : B 127. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is: (a) Tapered with flange on outside (b) Parallel with flange on inside (c) Tapered with flange on inside (d) Parallel with flange on outside Ans : C 128. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is: (a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in (d) 1 in 400 Ans : D 129. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called: (a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance (c) friction (d) Tractive resistance Ans : D 130 The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be: (a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable Ans : C 131. Sand is used as ballast incase of: (a) steel sleepers (b) wooden sleepers (c) reinforced concrete sleepers (d) cast iron sleepers Ans : D 132. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called: (a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals (c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals Ans : 133. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called: (a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway (c) Mono railway (d) Railway Ans : B 134. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as: (a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct Ans : C 135. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using: (a) Bearing (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors Ans : D 136. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called: (a) branch (b) points and crossing (c) main or through track (d) all above Ans : C 137. An expansion gap of ?. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature. (a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm (c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm Ans : C 138. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is: (a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg Ans : A 139. A dynamometer car is used for: (a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities (c) Inspection of administrative officers (d) Recording the condition of track Ans : D 140. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine? (a) Tender b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box Ans : B RRB Technical Question Paper RRB Latest Technical Categories paper 1.The chemical bond in germanium crystal is a)Metalic b)co-valent-Ans c)electro-valent d)Vaan der Walls 2.A ball is thrown upward in vacuum at 49m/sec. The time taken by the ball to reach the highest point is a)2.5 seconds 7.5 seconds c)5 seconds-Ans d)15 seconds 3.The majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductors are a)electrons b)holes-Ans c)both electrons and holes d)None of these 4.A body is projected at angle with the horizontal time of flight is given by a)usin?/g b)24sin?/3g c)2usin?/g-Ans d)42sin?/2g 5. If the distance between two masses be doubled the gravitational force of attraction between them will be a)doubles b)four times c)halved d)one-fourth-Ans 6. The ratio the length and breadth of a rectangle is 4:3 The area of the rectangle is 193cm2What will be its perimeter a)56cm b)46 cm c)28cm d)36cm-Ans 7.A force provides an acceleration of 0.5/m/sec to a body of mass 2 kg. what acceleration will it produce when acting on a body of mass 10 kg? a)0.1m/sec-Ans b)0.2m/sec c)o.5m?sec 1.0m/sec 8. The cathode rays are a)streams of electrons-Ans b)streams of positively charged particles c)streams of neutral particles d)electromagnetic waves 9In the most popular abbreviation in the field of banking sectors CBS the letter C stands for a)Core b)Credit c)Complete d)continent 10.Which group of inhabitants is targeted to be connected by seasonal roads during 2008-09? a)Population of 1000 to 2000 b)Population of 5000 to 10000 c)Population of 500 to 100-Ans d)Population of 2500 to 5000 11. which of the following economists has been conferred with Nobel Prize a)G.Swaminathan b)Amrty Sen c)M.L.Seth d)R Lingswsamy 12. In notation http://WWW.prenhall.com,http stands for a)host b)region c)pre-contact d)Set of rules-Ans 13.During a period of time you see so many websites and pages exhibited by a)status bar b)history bar c)task bar-Ans d)tool bar 14. where does the digestive and respiratory routes encroach each other a)Trachea-Ans b)Food canal c)respiratory tube d)Vocal cord 15.The state government gets maximum revenue form a)sales tax-Ans b)corporate tax c)excise tax d)custom duty 16 On internet in no charge the repair of generally known software bug is called a)version b)patch-Ans c)tutorial d)FAQ 17. Maria sharpova won Australian Opne Tennis-2008 by defeating a)Victoria Azarenka b)Alona Bondarenko c)Ana Ivanovic-Ans d)Kateryna Bondarenko 18. The planning commission of India has formed 12 members financial; sectors The chairman of the committee is a)Janaki Raman-Ans b)Raksesh Mohan c)Raghuram Rajan d)KV Kamth 19) The thickness of troposphere can increase during a)winter b)summer-ans c)spring d)None of these 20 the lightest gas in the atmosphere is a)hydrogen-ans b0nitrogen c)oxygen d)None of these 21 White phrospherous is stored in a)water b)supphuric acid c)alchol d)kerosene-Ans 22 Find the least number by which 8640 is divided and the quotient obtained becomes a perfect cube a)6 b)5-Ans c)7 d)8 23evaluate (-216*1728)1/3 a)-72-Ans b)27 c)72 d)8 24whihc of the following features provisions did the framers of India constitution take form the US constitution a)judicial review b)fundamental rights c)Removal of the Judges of Supreme court d)All the above-Ans 25 the golden period of India culture was during a)Rajput period b)Gupta period-Ans c)Chola period d)Maurya period 26. Artifical dialysis is used in the form of a)liver substitution b)intestine substitution c)kidney substitution-Ans d)abdomen substitution 27.Evaluate 16*2n-1-4*2n/16*2n+2-2*2n+2 a)1/2-ans b)0 c)4 d)1/3 28 If (25)*3 =(125)2*-3, then x is equal to a)2/3 b)3/2 c)3/4-ans d)1/4 29 9x2-24xy+16y2/3x-4y=? a)3x+4y b)3x-4y-ans c)4x+3y d)4x-3y 30 When polynomial x4-3x2+2x+5 is divided by (x-1) the remainder is a)2 b)3 c)4 d)5 31 what will be the ratio f amount and the principl in n years at 5%p.a rate of compound interest? a)(22)n?21)n 32 A freely suspended bar magnet always remains in the direction A)NORTH-SOUTH b)east-west c)south-west d)not certain 33 Directions (Qns.33 to 37) Choose the correct synonyms of each of the following words at questions places 33.prudent a)Cautious-Ans b)Honest c)Polite d)wise 34. Feeble a)disable b)Docile c)Rough d)weak-Ans 35.Coarse a)haughty b)fair c)rough-ans d)childish 36Calamity a)upset b)disaster-ans c)gloomy d)dilemma 37.Diligent a)moderate b)energetic c)intelligent d)industries-ans 38.The angle subtended at the center of circle by a major are will be a)right angle b)acute angle c)obtuse angle-Ans d)complementary angle 39A body dropped from a tower with zero velocity reaches the ground in 4 seconds. The hiehgt of the tower is about a)80 m -ans b)20 m c)160m d)40m 40Aman in a train moving with a constant velocity drops a abll on the platform. The path of the ball as seen by an observer standing on the platform is a)straight line b)a circle c)a parabola-Ans d)none of these 41Who among the following economists has done pioneering work on national income? a)Jagdish Bhagwati b)ML Seth c)Amartya Sen d)VKRV Rao-Ans 42 Monopoly means a)single buyer b)many sellers c)single seller-Ans d)many buyers 43Who introduced the silver coin called Taka or Rupia a)sher Shah Suri-Ans b)Akabar c)Timur d)Humayun 44 What is the International Date Line? a)Equator b)longitude c)90 degree East Longitude d)180 degree Longitude -Ans 45.The lines joining places experiencing a thunder stream at the same time is known as a)ishohyers b)Isochrones c)Ishoronts-Ans d)Isophenes 46 when a metal is heated its resistance a)decreases b)increases-Ans c)may increase or decrease d)remains constant 47The resistance of a wire of length 20 cm is 5?.It is stretched uniformly to a length of 40 cm.The resistance now becomes. a)5 ? b)10? c)20? d)200? 48 Which among the following countries is NOT a permanent member of UN Security council? a)The US b)The UK c)France d)Spain-Ans 48 Which among the following is an air-to ground missile? a)Nag_Ans b)Aakash c)Agni d)Prithvi 49The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.878 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs. 636. What is the cost price of the article? a)Rs.797 b)Rs.787 c)Rs.767 d)Rs.757-Ans 50Which of the following is NOT a Navratna PSU SAIL b)BHEL c)NTPCeir ages will be 3:4 d)Bank of India-Ans 51 The ages of Khushi and Jagriti are in the ratio of 5:8 After 8 years the ratio of their ages will be 3:4 What is the difference in their ages a)16 years b)8 years c)6 years-Ans d)10 years 52 In how many different ways can the letters of the word ?PUNCTUAL?be arranged? a)64 b)40320 c)960 d)20160-Ans 53Mohan decides to attend to some urgent work on a particular day in the month of august 2008. What is the probability that the day chosen by Mohan to attend to his work is Saturday? a)6/31 b)5/31-Ans c)2/15 d)1/6 54 While selling a watch a shopkeeper gives a discount of 20% he earns Rs.51 less as profit What is the original price of the watch? a)Rs.920 b)Rs.985 c)Rs.1,125 d)Rs.1,020-Ans 56 The length breadth and height of a school auditorium are 10m,30m, and 10m respectively The density of air is 1.3 kg per cubic metre, the mass of the air inside the auditorium a)39 kg b)390kg c)3900kg-ans d)39000kg 57 The mushroom which we eat as vegetable is a /an a)algae b)Fungus-ans c)Fern d)Moss 58If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 300% and the denominator is increased by 500%,t he resulton is 5/12 What was the original fraction? a)5/8 -Ans b)5/11 c)12/5 d)12/5 59 12 men and do a piece of work in 10 days. How many men would be required to do the same work in 8 days? a)14 b)18 c)16 d)15_Ans 60 Monazire is an ore of a)Gerconium b)Titanium c)Iron d)Therium 61The God of the Konark temple in Orissa is a)Sun-Ans b)Shiva c)Krishna d)Brahma 62 In the following the spice obtained from the root is a)turmeric b)clove c)linseed d)None of these 63The first woman Prime Minister in the world was a)Indira Gandhi b)S.Bhandarnaike-Ans c)Arunthaty Rai d)M.Linside 64The model of DNA structure was propounded by Watson and Crick 65 Vitamin E is chiefly found in a)pulses b)butter c)germinated grains-Ans d)oil of liver of fishes 66 Which article of the Indian constitution directs the state government to form a Village Panchayath a)Article 40-Ans b)Article 32 c)Article-48 d)Article 78 67Whihc of the following Grand Slams is played on grass courts? a)French Open b)Wimbledon Opne-Ans c)US Open d)Australian 68 Which of the following medicines is used in the treatment of typhoid? a)Sulfabdrugs b)Vitamina c)Chlorquin d)chlomycetin_Ans 69 Urea is a)sodium fertilizer b)Phosphorous fertilizer c)potassium fertilizer d)nitrogen fertilizer-Ans 70 Archipelago is a a)plateau b)island-Ans c)lake d)mountain 71 For photosynthesis energy is obtained from Sunlight b)water c)chlorophyll d)vitamin 72 We see before actual sunrise or after sunset due to a)reflection b)scattering c)refraction-ans d)diffraction 73 Who started the Saka era? a)Kanishka-Ans b)Vikramaditya c)Ashoka d)None of these 74 A sector of a circle subtending angle 36 degree has an 3.85cm2.The length of the arc is a)2.2cm b)2.5cm-ans c)2.7cm d)None of these 75 The dimension of energy are ML2T2 76 The vector quantity is _work 77Themaximum number of electrons in the second orbit of an element is -8 78 Saina Nehwal is related to-Badminton 79Dolomite is an ore of magnesium 80 The permeability in free space is equal to -4?10-7wb/Am RRB Question-Paper South East Central Railway Question Paper 1. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally: (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6 Ans : A 2. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called: (a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway (c) Railway (d) Tube railway Ans : D 3. The art of providing an outward slope of .... to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels. (a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20 Ans : D 4. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are: (a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers (c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable Ans : C 5. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as: (a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch (c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch Ans : B 6. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as: (a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard (c) marshalling yard (d) station yard Ans : C 7. Wider gauge permits: (a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load (c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves Ans : C 8. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life? (a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine (c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine And : B 9. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as: (a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare Ans : A 10. The creep in rails is measured in: (a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm Ans : B 11. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than ...., should not be used on any track under any circumstances. (a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20% Ans : C 12. In railways, super elevation is provided to: (a) facilitate drainage (b) counteract the centrifugal push (c) counteract the centripetal pull (d) have all the effects mentioned above Ans : B 13. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called: (a) running line (b) loop line (c) main line (d) none are correct Ans : B 14. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as: (a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails Ans : B 15. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is: (a) Tapered with flange on outside (b) Parallel with flange on inside (c) Tapered with flange on inside (d) Parallel with flange on outside Ans : C 16. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is: (a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400 Ans : D 17. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called: (a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance (c) friction (d) Tractive resistance Ans : D 18. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be: (a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable Ans : C 19. Sand is used as ballast incase of: (a) steel sleepers (b) wooden sleepers (c) reinforced concrete sleepers (d) cast iron sleepers Ans : D 20. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called: (a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals (c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals Ans : C 21. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called: (a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway (c) Mono railway (d) Railway Ans : B 22. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as: (a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct Ans : C 23. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using: (a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors Ans : D 24. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called: (a) branch track (b) points and crossing (c) main or through track (d) all above Ans : C 25. An expansion gap of .... is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature. (a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm (c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm Ans : C 26. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is: (a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg Ans : A 27. A dynamometer car is used for: (a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities (c) Inspection of administrative officers (d) Recording the condition of track Ans : D 28. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine? (a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box Ans : B RRB Question-Paper Old Question Paper of Southern Railway LDCE Question Paper Important this paper contains two sections ? A B & C both sections have to be answered section A carries 50 marks and section B carries 100 marks SECTION A (MAX MARKS-50) 1. Write short notes on any two of the following (10 marks) a) Narmada Bachao b) VAT c) Organ Transplant d) Right to Information Act 2. Expand the following abbreviations ( 5 marks ?½ marks each) a) LPG b)CAT c)PAC d)SPV e)ONGC f) UPSC g)SPCA h) PERT g) IMF h) IRCTC 3. Explain the concept of Raj Bhash a how it is implemented in your office (Please restrict your note to 250 words) 5 marks 4. Name the authors of the following books ( 5 marks) a) God of Small Things b) Malgudi Days c) As You Like It D) My Experiments With Truth E) Arthashastra F) Who Moved My Cheese G) Anand Math H) The Monk Who Sold His Ferrari I) Discovery of India J) Harry Potter and Order Of Phoenix 5. Fill in the blanks (5 marks) a) Veni ______ vicci b) A Stitch in time _____________ ____________ c) Ignorance is _____________ d) Rise and Fall of _________ __________ e) Few and ________ between f) I came, I saw and I __________ g) Jai Jawan Jai ____________ h) A thing of ________ is a joy forever i) if they don?t have bread let them ear ____________ j) a ___________ measures earthquake 6. Briefly explain the difference between the following (10 marks) a) Fundamental rights and directive principles b) bonafide and malafide c) BOLT & BOT d) Limited tender an d open tender e) Concurrence and sanction 7. The following personalities have been newsworthy. Briefly state the reason ( 10 marks) a) E Sreedharan b) INDIRA Nooyi c) Barack Obama d) J K Rowling e) Sunita Williams f) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw g) Dalai Lama h) Ratan Tata i) Asif Ali Sardari j) Hillary Clinton SECTION B (MAX MARKS 100) This section contains two parts A& B Attempt four questions taking any two from each.All questions carry equal marks of 25 each Part - A 1. What is the need for separate audit by representatives of comptroller and auditor general with effective internal auditing within the system,can c& AG Audit can be dispensed with discuss in detail giving pros and cons. 2. Write short notes on any five a) Konkan Railway Corporation b) Canons of Financial Propriety c) Delegation of powers d) reappropriations e) Charged and voted expenditure f) Railway Board g) Dedicated freight corridor 3. In the present set up of Indian railways what are the different ?FUNDS? In brief describe the nature of each fund and their operation. Briefly discuss ?CAPITAL FUNDS? 4. How is the ?operating ratio? calculated? What the limitations of this ratio in assessing the financial viability of the railway. What are your suggestions to bring down the operating ratio of Southern Railway? 5. ?Railway finances were separated fro general finances primarily to secure stability for civil estimates by providing for an assured contribution from railway revenues and also to introduce flexibility in the administration of railway finances, is this concept still relevant today. Discuss relative advantages and disadvantages. Part - B 1. What is the purpose of ?accounts office balance sheet. Briefly indicate the nature of debit and credit entries. What action would be taken for realisation of old outstanding? 2. Write short notes on any five a) Zero based budgeting b) Suspense heads c) Apportionment of earnings d) M & P Programme e) Approximate account current f) Railway Act 3. What is ?appropriation accounts? annexure J is an index of the efficiency of the accounts department. Discuss how we can on Southern Railway minimise the number of instances brought under annexure J 4. In the existing systems, the closure of accounts take considerable time. Even then the booked expenditure do not reflect the actual and correct picture. Critically examine the procedure of monthly, quarterly and annual closing and give your suggestions for improving the existing system. Also indicates whether approximate account current should continue 5. ?Traditional Budgeting is functionally oriented and accounting oriented but not result oriented. Zero based budgeting is an improvement over traditional budgeting? dicusss this statement in detail in the context Indian railways and also explain how zero based budget can be applied for revenue budget (i.e. working expenses). RRB Question-Paper RRB Previous Question Papers for JE SSE Posts, RRB Junior Engineer Previous Question Papers with Answers, RRB JE SSE Solved Papers?, This paper contains model questions of RRB junior engineer reasoning questions. RRB Junior Engineer Model Questions Reasoning Questions 1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten?s place and hundred?s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ? 479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675 (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 Ans : (C) 2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ? (A) North (B) North-East (C) South (D) South-East Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 3?5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow? On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North. (i) B is 50 metres to the right of D. (ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B (iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D. (iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A. 3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ? (A) 120 (B) 150 (C) 170 (D) 230 Ans : (D) 4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E (A) 53 (B) 78 (C) 92 (D) 120 Ans : (C) 5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) E Ans : (A) 6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ? (A) North (B) West (C) South (D) East Ans : (C) Directions?(Q. 7?11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set. 7. Given set : (4, 9, 18) (A) (8, 14, 22) (B) (10, 15, 25) (C) (6, 12, 23) (D) (12, 17, 26) Ans : (D) 8. Given set : (10, 14, 17) (A) (4, 11, 14) (B) (9, 12, 15) (C) (8, 13, 18) (D) (6, 9, 12) Ans : (A) 9. Given set : (7, 27, 55) (A) (21, 35, 52) (B) (18, 42, 65) (C) (16, 40, 72) (D) (13, 30, 58) Ans : (C) 10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)(A) (84, 67, 52) (B) (52, 25, 17) (C) (70, 49, 36) (D) (65, 45, 21) Ans : (A) 11. Given set : (246, 257, 358) (A) (233, 343, 345) (B) (273, 365, 367) (C) (143, 226, 237) (D) (145, 235, 325) Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 12?16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related. 12. (1) All books are having pages. (2) All kings are having pages. (3) All kings are books. (4) Some heavy things are having pages. (5) Some heavy things are books. (6) Some books are heavy. Ans : (D) 13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians. (2) All cricket players are athletes. (3) Some athletes play cricket. (4) Some cricket players are vegetarians. (5) No cricket player is a vegetarian. (6) All athletes are vegetarians. (A) 1, 2, 5 (B) 3, 4, 1 (C) 1, 5, 2 (D) 2, 5, 6 Ans : (A) 14. (1) All grandmothers cook well. (2) No man is a grandmother. (3) Some men do not cook well. (4) All those who cook well are men. (5) No one who cooks well is a man. (6) All those who cook well are grandmothers. (7) Some men are not grandmothers. (A) 2, 6, 5 (B) 2, 5, 6 (C) 1, 4, 2 (D) 6, 4, 7 Ans : (B) 15. (1) Looting is a crime. (2) Some crooked people are criminals. (3) All those involved in looting are criminals. (4) Some crooked people are involved in looting. (5) All criminals are looked down in society. (6) Some crooked people are not criminals. (A) 1, 4, 6 (B) 3, 6, 2 (C) 1, 2, 6 (D) 3, 4, 2 Ans : (D) 16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life. (2) Some men are those who have patience. (3) No man is a woman. (4) All those who have patience are successful in life. (5) Some who are successful in life are men. (6) Some men are not those are successful in life. (A) 1, 3, 6 (B) 4, 2, 6 (C) 1, 5, 3 (D) 2, 4, 5 Ans : (B) Directions?(Q. 17?21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.Give answers? (A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question; (B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions; (C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question; (D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question. 17. In which direction is Mahatmaji?s statue facing ? I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city. II. The statue?s shadow falls towards East at 5 O?clock in the evening. Ans : (C) 18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ? I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class. II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years. Ans : (B) 19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ? I. A is taller than C. II. B is taller than C and D. Ans : (C) 20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year I. The month begins on Monday. II. The month ends on Wednesday. Ans : (D) 21. What is the total number of pages in this book ? I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book. II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book. Ans : (C) Directions?(Q. 22?26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. 22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI. Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season. II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI. III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest. (A) None is implicit (B) Only I and II are implicit (C) Only II and III are implicit (D) All are implicit Ans : (D) 23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life. Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood. II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth. III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment. (A) Only I and II are implicit (B) Only III is implicit (C) Only I and III are implicit (D) None is implicit Ans : (A) 24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day. Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production. II. The demand of crude may remain same in future. III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries. (A) All are implicit (B) Only II and III are implicit (C) Only I and II are implicit (D) None is implicit Ans : (C) 25. Statement : ?We do not want you to see our product on newspaper,visit our shop to get a full view.? ? an advertisement. Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement. II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers. III. People may come to see the product. (A) All are implicit (B) None is implicit (C) Only II and III are implicit (D) Only I and II are implicit Ans : (A) 26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters. Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters. II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan. III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures. (A) All are implicit (B) None is implicit (C) Both II and III are implicit (D) Both I and II are implicit Ans : (C) Directions?(Q. 27?31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under? (A) If only conclusion I follows. (B) If only conclusion II follows. (C) If both I and II follows. (D) Neither I nor II follows. 27. Statements :1. All hands are machines. 2. All machines are wheels. Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands. II. All hands are wheels. Ans : (B) 28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves. 2. Some leaves are red. Conclusions : I. Some buds are red. II. Some leaves are not buds. Ans : (B) 29. Statements : 1. Some stones are shells. 2. All shells are pearls. Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls. II. All pearls are shells. Ans : (A) 30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green. 2. Green is pink and yellow is red. Conclusions : I. Yellow is brown. II. Pink is blue. Ans : (C) 31. Statements : 1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either. 2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles. Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles. II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles. Ans : (D) Directions?(Q. 32?36) A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement. Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689 Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689 Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689 Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689 Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689 Step IV is the last step of input. 32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ?333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799? ? (A) II (B) III (C) IV (D) I Ans : (B) 33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ? Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857 (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 6 Ans : (A) 34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ? Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358 (A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358 (B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358 (C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358 (D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358 Ans : (C) 35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth step ? Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977 (A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977 (B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977 (C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977 (D) Can?t be determined Ans : (B) 36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ? Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549 (A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549 (B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549 (C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549 (D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549 Ans : (A) Directions?(Q. 37?41) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it? (1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer. (2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist. (3) The Manager D is married to A. (4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer. (5) B is the mother of F and E. (6) There are two married couples in the family. (7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male. 37. What is the profession of E ? (A) Doctor (B) Engineer (C) Manager (D) Psychologist Ans : (B) 38. How is A related to E ? (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father (D) Grandfather Ans : (D) 39. How many male numbers are there in the family ? (A) One (B) Three (C) Four (D) Two Ans : (B) 40. What is the profession of A ? (A) Doctor (B) Lawyer (C) Jeweller (D) Manager Ans : (A) 41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ? (A) AB (B) AC (C) AD (D) AE Ans : (C) 42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) Papaya (B) Mango (C) Jackfruit (D) Watermelon Ans : (C) 43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ? (A) SPEAK : PZVKH (B) HUSKY : BPGFS (C) BRAIN : MRZIY (D) BREAK : PZVIY Ans : (B) 44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ? (A) DJWR (B) EKXR (C) KQDX (D) AGTN Ans : (A) 45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one. (A) GWOURV (B) LZKMSU (C) SFXPMG (D) JOEHNP Ans : (C) 46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related. (A) Watt : Power (B) Ampere : Current (C) Pascal : Pressure (D) Radian : Degree Ans : (D) 47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ? (A) ONLKI (B) OMKIG (C) OMJFA (D) OIGDC Ans : (C) 48. If the letters of the word ?PROTECTION? which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ? (A) E (B) O (C) T (D) I Ans : (D) 49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9 Ans : (C) 50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence. (1) Dissipate (2) Dissuade (3) Disseminate (4) Distract (5) Dissociate (6) Dissect (A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 (B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5 (C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4 (D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2 Ans : (A) RRB Question-Paper RRB conducts recruitments for various posts.RRB Previous Question Papers for JE SSE Posts, RRB Junior Engineer Previous Question Papers with Answers, RRB JE SSE Solved Papers. This paper contains model questions of RRB Technical Questions. RRB Engineering Solved Question Paper 1. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called: (a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve (c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve Ans : B 2. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on: (a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents Ans : B 3. The track capacity can be increased by: (a) Faster movement of trains on the track (b) By using more powerful engines (c) All the above (d) None of the above Ans : C 4. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called: (a) terminal station (b) flag station (c) way side station (d) junction station Ans : D 5. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is: (a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm Ans : A 6. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as: (a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart (c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart Ans: C 7. The most common system of signaling in India is the ...... system. (a) automatic block (b) section clear system (c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system Ans : C 8. The feeder gauge .... is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc. (a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m Ans : A 9. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track: (a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt Ans : B 10. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called: (a) Up gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient Ans : B 11. Points and crossings are provided for change of ....on permanent ways. (a) gauge (b) direction and gradient (c) direction (d) gradient Ans : C 12. In locomotive ?hunting? is: (a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track (b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track (c) Motion after brakes have been applied (d) Combination of A and B above Ans : D 13. The rails which get b attered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called: (a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails (c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails Ans : A 14. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is: (a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m Ans : B 15. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be: (a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m Ans : B 16. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than: (a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m Ans : A 17. Generally the shape of fish plate is: (a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular Ans : B 18. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be: (a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm Ans : C 69. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is: (a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM (c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM Ans : B 20. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called (a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient Ans : D 21. The latest system of signaling introduced is: (a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system (c) section clear system (d) automatic block system Ans : A 22. Detonating signals are used: (a) for noisy engines (b) during foggy and cloudy weather (c) for deaf drivers (d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only Ans : B 23. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally: (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6 Ans : A 24. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called: (a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway (c) Railway ( (d) Tube railway Ans : D 25. The art of providing an outward slope of .... to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels. (a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20 Ans : D 26. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are: (a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers (c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable Ans : C 27. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as: (a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch (c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch Ans : B 28. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as: (a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard (c) marshalling yard (d) station yard Ans : C 29. Wider gauge permits: (a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load (c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves Ans : C 30. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life? (a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine (c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine Ans : B 31. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as: (a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare Ans : A 32. The creep in rails is measured in: (a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm Ans : B 33. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than ...., should not be used on any track under any circumstances. (a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20% Ans : C 34. In railways, super elevation is provided to: (a) facilitate drainage (b) counteract the centrifugal push (c) counteract the centripetal pull (d) have all the effects mentioned above Ans : B 35. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called: (a) running line (b) loop line (c) main line (d) none are correct Ans : B RRB Question paper RRB General questions,aptitude,Reasoning Arithmetic and general knowledge 1) When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it (a) Remains undeviated (b) Bends towards normal (c) Bends away from normal -Answer (d) None of these 2) Who is the author of "Anandmath" ? (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim chandra Chattopadhyaya-Answer (c) Sarojini Nayadu (d) Jyotiba Phule 3) Thimpu is the capital of - (a) Nepal (b) Bhutan -Answer (c) Thailand (d) Myanmar 4) The time period of a seconds pendulum is (a) 1 second (b) 4 seconds (c) 3 seconds (d) 2 seconds-Answer 5) The nuclear fuel in the sun is (a) Helium (b) Uranium (c) Hydrogen -Answer (d) Oxygen 6) The second’s hand of a watch is 2 cm long) The velocity of its tip is (a) 0)21 cm/sec) -Answer (b) 2)1 cm/sec) (c) 21 cm/sec) (d) None of these 7) In diesel engine, ignition is caused by (a) Spark (b) Automatic starter (c) Compression-Answer (d) Friction 8) The mass-energy equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by (a) Max Plank (b) Einstein -Answer (c) Newton (d) Hertz 9) The filament of bulb is made of (a) Tungsten -Answer (b) Iron (c) Nichrome (d) Carbon 10) Anti-knocking can be lessened by (a) Iso Octane -Answer (b) N Heptane (c) TEL (d) Benzene 11) In which of the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state) (a) CO (b) N2O (c) NO (d) F2O-Answer 12) Which of the following is used in photography? (a) Silver Bromide -Answer (b) Sodium Bromide (c) Potassium Chloride (d) Sodium Sulphate 13) Which of the following is used in accumulator cell? (a) Copper (b) Iron (c) Lead -Answer (d) Zinc 14) Choose the wrong statement : (a) Single magnetic poles can exist-Answer (b) Magnetic poles are always of equal strength (c) Like poles repel each other (d) None of these 15) Laws of electrolysis are given by: (a) Farady -Answer (b) Maxwell (c) Lenz (d) Bohr 16) Flemings left hand rule is used to fine out: (a) Direction of magnetic field due to flow of current (b) Direction of induced current due to effect of magnetic field (c) Direction of motion of a current carrying conductor in magnetic field-Answer (d) None of these 17) The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is : (a) 0 (b) 1.0 (c) 7.0 -Answer (d) 1.4 18) The raw material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is : (a) Limestone and clay (b) Alumina, clay and gypsum-Answer (c) Gypsum and limestone (d) Gypsum and clay 19) CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for a compound commonly known as : (a) Soda Ash (b) Lime c) Bleaching Powder -Answer (d) Plaster of Paris 20) The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is : (a) Pyrex glass -Answer (b) Hard glass (c) Soft glass (d) Safety glass 21) The iron produced in blast furnace is : (a) Pig iron -Answer (b) Wrought iron (c) Stainless steel (d) Steel 22) Formation is a 40% solution of : (a) Methanol (b) Methenal -Answer (c) Methanoic acid (d) None of these 23) Which of the following is not an ore of aluminium : (a) Cryolite (b) Feldspar (c) Bauxite (d) Azurite-Answer 24) Rhombic monoclinic and plastic sulphur are: (a) Isomers (b) Isotopes (c) Allotropes -Answer (d) Hydrides of sulphur 25) The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats gives soap and : (a) Glycerol -Answer (b) Ethenol (c) Glycol (d) Ethanoic acid 26) The sight of a delicious food usually makes month watery) It is a : (a) Hormonal response (b) Neural response (c) Optic response (d) Olfactory response-Answer 27) Nitrogen fixing bacteria are normally found in : (a) Parasitic plants (b) Epiphytic plants (c) Leguminous plants -Answer (d) Aquatic plants 28) Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by: (a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Fungi -Answer (d) Protozoans 29) Septic sore throat is caused by : (a) Bacteria -Answer (b) Virus-Answer (c) Fungi (d) Protozoans 30) A person of blood group AB can give blood to : (a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ (b) Only ‘AB’ -Answer (c) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘O’ (d) All of these 31) Cell activities are controlled by : (a) Chloroplast (b) Nitochondria (c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus-Answer 32) Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal length of the eye lens : (a) Cornea (b) Conjunctiva (c) Ciliary body -Answer (d) Iris 33) When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant, pollination type is referred to as : (a) Autogamy-Answer (b) Allogamy (c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy 34) Respiration is a : (a) Catabolic process -Answer (b) Anabolic process (c) Both of these (d) None of these 35) The structural and functional unit of kidneys are : (a) Neurons (b) Nephrons -Answer (c) Medula (d) None of these 36) Which of the following enzymes is generally nor present in adult human : (a) Renin -Answer (b) Pepsin (c) Trypsin (d) Amylopsin 37) The part of the plant which is responsible for carrying water and solutes from roots to various parts of plants is : (a) Phloem (b) Xylem -Answer (c) Duodenum (d) Sclercids 38) ‘Widal test’ is used for susceptibility of : (a) Malaria (b) Typhoid-Answer (c) Cholera (d) Yellow fever 39) Exchange of gases in plants takes place through : (a) Stomata (b) Lenticels (c) Cuticle (d) All of these-Answer 40) ‘Lieutenant’ in army is equivalent to following rank in navy : (a) Lieutenant (b) Sub Lieutanant -Answer (c) Lieutenant Commander (d) None of these 41) Pankaj Advani is associated with : (a) Snooker (b) Golf (c) Shooting (d) Archery 42) Which city in the world is known as the forbidden city : (a) Aberdeen (b) Jerusalem c) Mecca (d) Lhasa-Answer 43) Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award carries a sum of : (a) Rs) 3 lakns (b) Rs) 5 lakhs-Answer (c) Rs) 1 lakh (d) Rs) 7 lakhs 44) Who is known as ‘Nightingale of India’ : (a) Asha Bhonsle (b) Begum Akhtar (c) Sarojini Naidu -Answer (d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit 45) Which one of the following is not included in the UNESCO’s list of world heritage site : (a) Kaziranga National Park (b) Qutab Minar (c) Champaner Pavagarh (d) None of these-Answer 46) Which of the following is not an electric resistant? (a) Lead -Answer (b) Ebonite (c) Charcoal (d) Lac 47) Which of the following is a complementary colour? (a) Blue (b) Yellow (c) Magenta (d) Yellow and Magenta-Answer 48) The velocity of sound increases in air by ……… for every degree Celsius increase of temperature) (a) 60 m/sec (b) 0)61 m/sec-Answer (c) 60 ft/sec d) 0)61 km/sec 49) Henry is a unit of (a) Capacity (b) Magnetic field (c) Inductance -Answer (d) Frequency 50) The velocity of rotation of Earth is (a) 28 km/min-Answer (b) 30 km/min (c) 25 km/min (d) 39)5 km/min 51) What is Hubble? (a) Warship (b) Star (c) Telescope -Answer (d) Missile 52) Which acid is normally found in lemon and grape fruits? (a) Citric acid -Answer (b) Tartaric acid (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Lactic acid 53) At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius show same reading? (a) -400 -Answer (b) 00 (c) -574)250 (d) 2730 54) Limestone is metamorphosed to form (a) Graphite (b) Quartz (c) Granite (d) Marble-Answer 55) Rift valley is formed by (a) Earthquake (b) Folding c) Faulting -Answer (d) All of these 56) If a piece of ice at 00C is mixed with water at 00C, then (a) Whole ice melts (b) Some ice melts (c) No ice melts -Answer (d) Temperature decreases 57) Mettur Dam is built on the river (a) Krishna (b) Cauvery -Answer (c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi 58) Mahendra Giri peak is situated in the (a) Eastern Ghats -Answer (b) Western Ghats (c) Shiwaliks (d) Vindhyachal 59) In what time a sum will double itself at 20% per annum rate of interest? (a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 4 years (d) 5 years-Answer 60) The famous Dilwara Temple is situated in (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan-Answer 61) Pneumonia affects (a) Lungs -Answer (b) Tongue (c) Liver (d) Kidney 62) The chemical name of Vitamin A is (a) Retinol -Answer (b) Jhiamin (c) Biotic d) Riboflavin 63) A 130m long train crosses a bridge in 30 seconds at 45 kmph) The length of the bridge is (a) 200m (b) 225m (c) 245m -Answer (d) 250m 64) By selling an article at some price a person gains 10%) If the article is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be (a) 20% (b) 60% (c) 100% (d) 120%-Answer 65) Atoms are electrically charged as (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Bi-positive (d) Neutral-Answer 66) Ionic bond exists in (a) Kcl -Answer (b) H2O (c) NH3 (d) Cl3 67) Which force is required to increase the momentum of an object to 40 kg m/s in 5 seconds? (a) 2N (b) 4N (c) 8N -Answer d) 10N 68) The river that does not form delta is (a) Mahanadi (b) Tapti -Answer (c) Krishna (d) Cauvery 69) The ratio of the redius and height of a cone is 5 : 12, respectively) Its volume is 23147cc) Find its slant height) (a) 13cm -Answer (b) 14cm (c) 17cm (d) 26cm 70) 27 students took part in a debate of a college) What is the probability that at least 3 of them have their birth days in the same month? (a) 3/27 (b) 3/12 (c) 12 -Answer (d) 1 71) Who was the first winner of Dada Saheb Phalke Award? (a) B)N)Sarkar (b) Prithvi Raj Kapoor (c) Devika Rani -Answer (d) Kanan Devi 72) How many members are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha? (a) 12 -Answer (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 20 73) Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj? (a) Raja Rammohan Roy -Answer (b) Aurobindo Ghosh (c) Vivekanand (d) Dyanand Saraswati 74) The Parliamentary System in India has been taken from (a) America (b) Britain -Answer (c) Australia (d) Ireland 75) The electric supply in India was first started in (a) Kolkata (b) Chennai (c) Mumbai (d) Darjeeling-Answer 76) Bhatnagar Prize is given in the field of (a) Peace (b) Music and dance (c) Science & technology -Answer (d) Fine arts 77) Who discovered the solar system? (a) Copernicus -Answer (b) Kepler (c) Aryabhatta (d) Newton 78) The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in (a) 1901 (b) 1936 (c) 1957 (d) 1967-Answer 79) In India, the second largest in (a) Bengali (b) Urdu (c) Telugu -Answer (d) Marathi 80) The first Asian Games were held in (a) Manila (b) Tokyo (c) Jakarta (d) New Delhi-Answer 81) The Islam was established in (a) 7th A.D.-Answer (b) 5th A.D. (c) 3rd B.C. (d) 5th B.C. 82) The Olympic Games 2012 will be held in (a) Moscow (b) Paris (c) New York (d) London-Answer 83) The main factor of air pollution is (a) Lead -Answer (b) Copper (c) Zinc (d) Gold 84) The bauxite ore is found in (a) Musabani (b) Karnapura (c) Koderma (d) Palamu-Answer 85) The first fertilizer plant in India was established in (a) Trombay (b) Nangal (c) Alwaye d) Sindri-Answer 86) Which of the following had strong navy? (a) Bahmani (b) Chalukya (c) Chola -Answer (d) Rashtrakuta 87) The last king of Maurya Dynastry was (a) Brihdarth -Answer (b) Kunal (c) Samprati (d) Salishuk 88) How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central part of the lens is covered by black paper? (a) Remaining part of the lens will form no image (b) The central position of the image is absent (c) There will be no effect (d) The full image will be formed with lessened brightness-Answer 89) The force between two parallel wires conducting current is used to define (a) Ampere -Answer (b) Coulomb (c) Volt (d) Newton 90) A body is thrown vertically upward and it reaches 10m high) Find the velocity with which the body was thrown? (g= 9)8 m/s) (a) 10 m/sec) (b) 18 m/sec) c) 14 m/sec) -Answer (d) 7 m/sec) 91) The buoyancy depends on the (a) Depth of the fluid (b) Density of the fluid-Answer (c) Volume of the fluid (d) Weight of the fluid 92 A number when divided by 5 leaves the remainder 3. What is the remainder when the square of the same number is divided by 5? (A) 9 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 4-Answer 93 If 4 workers can make 42 toys in 6 days, how many toys can 12 workers make in 3 days? (a) 63 -Answer (b) 28 (c) 252 d) 7 94The salary of an employee was reduced by 40% first and then was increased by 50%. How much percent did he lose? (a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 10% -Answer (d) 12% 95 A mixture of 20 kg of spirit and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to this mixture to raise the percentage of water to 25% (a) 4 kg -Answer (b) 5 kg (c) 8 kg (d) 30 kg Ans:- A RRB General awareness,Aptitude and Technical Questions RRB General Awareness, Aptitude and Technical Questions -Previous Papers 1. When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it (a) Remains undeviated (b) Bends towards normal (c) Bends away from normal (d) None of these 2.Who is the author of "Anandmath" ? (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim chandra Chattopadhyaya(c) Sarojini Nayadu (d) Jyotiba Phule 3. Thimpu is the capital of - (a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Thailand (d) Myanmar 4. The time period of a seconds pendulum is (a) 1 second (b) 4 seconds(c) 3 seconds (d) 2 seconds 5. The nuclear fuel in the sun is (a) Helium (b) Uranium(c) Hydrogen (d) Oxygen 6. The second’s hand of a watch is 2 cm long. The velocity of its tip is (a) 0.21 cm/sec. (b) 2.1 cm/sec.(c) 21 cm/sec. (d) None of these 7. In diesel engine, ignition is caused by (a) Spark (b) Automatic starter(c) Compression (d) Friction 8. The mass-energy equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by (a) Max Plank (b) Einstein(c) Newton (d) Hertz 9. The filament of bulb is made of (a) Tungsten (b) Iron (c) Nichrome (d) Carbon 10. Anti-knocking can be lessened by (a) Iso Octane (b) N Heptane(c) TEL (d) Benzene 11. In which of the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state. (a) CO (b) N2O(c) NO (d) F2O 12. Which of the following is used in photography? (a) Silver Bromide (b) Sodium Bromide(c) Potassium Chloride (d) Sodium Sulphate 13. Which of the following is used in accumulator cell? (a) Copper (b) Iron(c) Lead (d) Zinc 14. Choose the wrong statement : (a) Single magnetic poles can exist (b) Magnetic poles are always of equal strength (c) Like poles repel each other (d) None of these 15. Laws of electrolysis are given by: (a) Farady (b) Maxwell(c) Lenz (d) Bohr 16. Flemings left hand rule is used to fine out: (a) Direction of magnetic field due to flow of current (b) Direction of induced current due to effect of magnetic field (c) Direction of motion of a current carrying conductor in magnetic field (d) None of these 17. The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is : (a) 0 (b) 1.0(c) 7.0 (d) 1.4 18. The raw material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is : (a) Limestone and clay (b) Alumina, clay and gypsum(c) Gypsum and limestone (d) Gypsum and clay 19. CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for a compound commonly known as : (a) Soda Ash (b) Lime(c) Bleaching Powder (d) Plaster of Paris 20. The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is : (a) Pyrex glass (b) Hard glass(c) Soft glass (d) Safety glass 21. The iron produced in blast furnace is : (a) Pig iron (b) Wrought iron(c) Stainless steel (d) Steel 22. Formation is a 40% solution of : (a) Methanol (b) Methenal(c) Methanoic acid (d) None of these 23. Which of the following is not an ore of aluminium : (a) Cryolite (b) Feldspar(c) Bauxite (d) Azurite 24. Rhombic monoclinic and plastic sulphur are: (a) Isomers (b) Isotopes(c) Allotropes (d) Hydrides of sulphur 25. The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats gives soap and : (a) Glycerol (b) Ethenol(c) Glycol (d) Ethanoic acid 26. The sight of a delicious food usually makes month watery. It is a : (a) Hormonal response (b) Neural response(c) Optic response (d) Olfactory response 27. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are normally found in : (a) Parasitic plants (b) Epiphytic plants(c) Leguminous plants (d) Aquatic plants 28. Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by: (a) Bacteria (b) Virus(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans 29. Septic sore throat is caused by : (a) Bacteria (b) Virus(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans 30. A person of blood group AB can give blood to : (a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ (b) Only ‘AB’(c) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘O’ (d) All of these 31. Cell activities are controlled by : (a) Chloroplast (b) Nitochondria(c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus 32. Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal length of the eye lens : (a) Cornea (b) Conjunctiva(c) Ciliary body (d) Iris 33. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant, pollination type is referred to as : (a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy(c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy 34. Respiration is a : (a) Catabolic process (b) Anabolic process(c) Both of these (d) None of these 35. The structural and functional unit of kidneys are : (a) Neurons (b) Nephrons(c) Medula (d) None of these 36. Which of the following enzymes is generally nor present in adult human : (a) Renin (b) Pepsin(c) Trypsin (d) Amylopsin 37. The part of the plant which is responsible for carrying water and solutes from roots to various parts of plants is : (a) Phloem (b) Xylem(c) Duodenum (d) Sclercids 38. ‘Widal test’ is used for susceptibility of : (a) Malaria (b) Typhoid(c) Cholera (d) Yellow fever 39. Exchange of gases in plants takes place through : (a) Stomata (b) Lenticels(c) Cuticle (d) All of these 40. ‘Lieutenant’ in army is equivalent to following rank in navy : (a) Lieutenant (b) Sub Lieutanant(c) Lieutenant Commander (d) None of these 41. Pankaj Advani is associated with : (a) Snooker (b) Golf(c) Shooting (d) Archery 42. Which city in the world is known as the forbidden city : (a) Aberdeen (b) Jerusalem(c) Mecca (d) Lhasa 43. Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award carries a sum of : (a) Rs. 3 lakns (b) Rs. 5 lakhs(c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Rs. 7 lakhs 44. Who is known as ‘Nightingale of India’ : (a) Asha Bhonsle (b) Begum Akhtar(c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit 45. Which one of the following is not included in the UNESCO’s list of world heritage site : (a) Kaziranga National Park (b) Qutab Minar(c) Champaner Pavagarh (d) None of these 46. Which of the following is not an electric resistant? (a) Lead (b) Ebonite(c) Charcoal (d) Lac 47. Which of the following is a complementary colour? (a) Blue (b) Yellow(c) Magenta (d) Yellow and Magenta 48. The velocity of sound increases in air by ……… for every degree Celsius increase of temperature. (a) 60 m/sec. (b) 0.61 m/sec.(c) 60 ft/sec. (d) 0.61 km/sec. 49. Henry is a unit of(a) Capacity (b) Magnetic field(c) Inductance (d) Frequency 50. The velocity of rotation of Earth is (a) 28 km/min (b) 30 km/min(c) 25 km/min (d) 39.5 km/min 51. What is Hubble?(a) Warship (b) Star(c) Telescope (d) Missile 52. Which acid is normally found in lemon and grape fruits? (a) Citric acid (b) Tartaric acid (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Lactic acid 53. At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius show same reading? (a) -400 (b) 00 (c) -574.250 (d) 2730 54. Limestone is metamorphosed to form (a) Graphite (b) Quartz (c) Granite (d) Marble 55. Rift valley is formed by (a) Earthquake (b) Folding (c) Faulting (d) All of these 56. If a piece of ice at 00C is mixed with water at 00C, then (a) Whole ice melts (b) Some ice melts (c) No ice melts (d) Temperature decreases 57. Mettur Dam is built on the river (a) Krishna (b) Cauvery (c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi 58. Mahendra Giri peak is situated in the (a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats (c) Shiwaliks (d) Vindhyachal 59. In what time a sum will double itself at 20% per annum rate of interest? (a) 2 years (b) 3 years(c) 4 years (d) 5 years 60. The famous Dilwara Temple is situated in (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan 61. Pneumonia affects(a) Lungs (b) Tongue(c) Liver (d) Kidney 62. The chemical name of Vitamin A is(a) Retinol (b) Jhiamin(c) Biotic (d) Riboflavin 63. A 130m long train crosses a bridge in 30 seconds at 45 kmph. The length of the bridge is (a) 200m (b) 225m(c) 245m (d) 250m 64. By selling an article at some price a person gains 10%. If the article is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be (a) 20% (b) 60%(c) 100% (d) 120% 65. Atoms are electrically charged as (a) Positive (b) Negative(c) Bi-positive (d) Neutral 66. Ionic bond exists in(a) Kcl (b) H2O(c) NH3 (d) Cl3 67. Which force is required to increase the momentum of an object to 40 kg m/s in 5 seconds? (a) 2N (b) 4N(c) 8N (d) 10N 68. The river that does not form delta is (a) Mahanadi (b) Tapti(c) Krishna (d) Cauvery 69. The ratio of the redius and height of a cone is 5 : 12, respectively. Its volume is 23147cc. Find its slant height. (a) 13cm (b) 14cm(c) 17cm (d) 26cm 70. 27 students took part in a debate of a college. What is the probability that at least 3 of them have their birth days in the same month? (a) 3/27 (b) 3/12(c) 12 (d) 1 71. Who was the first winner of Dada Saheb Phalke Award? (a) B.N.Sarkar (b) Prithvi Raj Kapoor(c) Devika Rani (d) Kanan Devi 72. How many members are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha? (a) 12 (b) 15(c) 10 (d) 20 73. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj? (a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Aurobindo Ghosh(c) Vivekanand (d) Dyanand Saraswati 74. The Parliamentary System in India has been taken from(a) America (b) Britain(c) Australia (d) Ireland 75. The electric supply in India was first started in(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai(c) Mumbai (d) Darjeeling 76. Bhatnagar Prize is given in the field of(a) Peace (b) Music and dancec) Science & technology (d) Fine arts 77. Who discovered the solar system? (a) Copernicus (b) Kepler(c) Aryabhatta (d) Newton 78. The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in(a) 1901 (b) 1936(c) 1957 (d) 1967 79. In India, the second largest in(a) Bengali (b) Urdu(c) Telugu (d) Marathi 80. The first Asian Games were held in(a) Manila (b) Tokyo(c) Jakarta (d) New Delhi 81. The Islam was established in(a) 7th A.D. (b) 5th A.D. (c) 3rd B.C. (d) 5th B.C . 82. The Olympic Games 2012 will be held in(a) Moscow (b) Paris(c) New York (d) London 83. The main factor of air pollution is(a) Lead (b) Copper(c) Zinc (d) Gold 84. The bauxite ore is found in(a) Musabani (b) Karnapura(c) Koderma (d) Palamu 85. The first fertilizer plant in India was established in (a) Trombay (b) Nangal(c) Alwaye (d) Sindri 86. Which of the following had strong navy? (a) Bahmani (b) Chalukya(c) Chola (d) Rashtrakuta 87. The last king of Maurya Dynastry was(a) Brihdarth (b) Kunal(c) Samprati (d) Salishuk 88. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central part of the lens is covered by black paper? (a) Remaining part of the lens will form no image (b) The central position of the image is absent (c) There will be no effect (d) The full image will be formed with lessened brightness 89. The force between two parallel wires conducting current is used to define (a) Ampere (b) Coulomb(c) Volt (d) Newton 90. A body is thrown vertically upward and it reaches 10m high. Find the velocity with which the body was thrown? (g = 9.8 m/s) (a) 10 m/sec. (b) 18 m/sec.(c) 14 m/sec. (d) 7 m/sec. 91. The buoyancy depends on the (a) Depth of the fluid (b) Density of the fluid(c) Volume of the fluid (d) Weight of the fluid 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a & b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c) 91. (b) RRB latest Question Papers with answer RRB solved Question papers-SIG/ESM Paper RRB lReasoning Questions 1Meal :Menu:: Library :???? a)Books b)Librarian c)Catalogue-Ans d)Magazines 2. Medicine : sickness :: ??..:Unknowingness a)writer b)books-Ans c)Teacher d)Knowledge 3.Which of the following disease is not a water borne? a)flu-ans b)typhoid c)cholera d)Amoebiasis 4.Which one of the following is the purest form of carbon?a)coal of wood b)Coal c)Coke d)Diamond-ans 5. In a code DUPLICATE is written as MRVFJFVBE,how will CARTOUCHE be written in the same way ? a)UTBEPWDJF b)UTBFQFJDW c)UTBEQFJDW d)UTBEPFJDW-ans Directions :(Qns-6-10 ) eight friends J,K,L,M,O,P and Q are sitting in a circle and facing towards the centre. J is not the neighbor of N,L, is at third place from K in right side; Q is at the second place from N in the left side which is adjoining right of L; O is not the neighbor of N, but located at the extreme left of P Read the question and answer the following questions 6 In which of the following groups , the first person is sitting between the rest of the two persons? a)PKJ b)JQK-ans c)QNL d)LMN 7. Who os at the extreme right of K? a) J-ans b) P c)Q d) Cannot be determined 8.Which of the following pairs is the neighbor of O? a)L & N b) P & K c)M & P -ans d)N & P 9.Which is at the extreme left of N ? a)P b)L-ans c)Q d)J 10. Which of the following is the correct place of L? a)At the extreme right of N b)At the extreme right of Q-ans c)At the extreme left of J d)At the extreme left of Q 11. How many meaningful words can be formed,out of four letters A,C,E and R. While one letter is taken only once in each formulation? a)None b)One c)Two d)Three-ans 12.Two same magnetic poles ??.one another a)Repeal-ans b)Attract c)Unaffected d)None of these 13.the product of two successive numbers is 8556. What would be the small number? a)89 b)94 c)30 d)92-ans 14.What least number should be added to 4321 to make it a permanent square ? a)32 b)34 c)35-ans d)38 15.Find the average of the set of the following numbers. 221,331,292,359,665,525 a)399-ans b)428 c)407 d)415 16After 3 years what would be the simple interest of Rs.5760 at the annual interest of 6%? a)Rs.1036.80-ans b)Rs.1666.80 c)Rs.1336.80 d)1063.80 17.what is the boiling point of mercury ? a)100degreeC b)174 c)257 -ans d)357 18UHF dispalys the band a)3MHz to 30 MHz b) 30MHz to 300 MHz c) 300MHz to 3000 MHz-ans d) 3000MHz to 30000MHz 19Electronvolt is the unit of a)Charge b)Momentum c)Energy-ans d)Potential 20When a sound waves moves,it transports a)Mass b)Sound c)Energy-ans d)All of the above 21 What will be value of 0.1*0.1*0.01*0.01? a)0.1000 b)0.0001 c)0.00001-ans d)1.0000 22. which of the following is not a chemical change? a)Rusting of iron b)Conversion of water into steam-ans c)Conversion of milk in to curd d)Burning of coal 23.Find the out the value of X a)100degree b)120 degree -ans c)140 degree d)160 degree 24.Find out the total number of squares a)12 b)14-ans c)16 d)18 25 For total internal reflection, the value of angle of incidence should be a)Equal to critical angle b)Less than critical angle c)Larger than critical angle-ans d)None of these 26 Focal length of a convex lens is 25 cm, its power,in diopter, will be a)+1/4 b)-4 c)-1/4 d)+4-ans 27 What is the colour of filaments of an electric bulb when its temperature is highest a)Red b)White-ans c)Orange d)Yellow 28 In vaccum,which of the following properties of x rays,light waves and radio waves will be similar a)Wavelength b)Frequency c)Amplitude d)Speed-ans 29 Number of electron in 1 colomb charge will ne a)6.25*10 18-ans b) 6.25*10 16 c) 6.25*10 17 d) 6.25*10 15 30 The digit of unit place of the number 17 1999+11 1999-7 1999 is a)7-ans b)1 c)5 d)3 31 A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because a)Heat is more evenly distributed b)The high pressure tenderizes the food c)Boiling point of the water inside the cooker is increased-ans d)All the above 32 The temperature coefficient of resistence is negative in case of the following a)Bothe insculator and electrolytes b)insulator c)Conductors d)electrolytes and Semiconductors-ans 33 Which one of the following statement is NOT correct ? a)CFC are synthetic chemical b)Large ozone hole has been notices over the South pole c)Large ozone hole has been noticed over the North Pole-ans d) Chlorofluorocarbons are broken down is lower atmosphere by intense ultraviolet radiations 34 Current in the oceans are a result of a) The movement of the Labrador wind b) Salinity difference from place to place c) Temparature difference-ans d) D)The motion of the gulf stream 35 The only language which a computer cannot understand is a)machine language b)High level language c)Assembly language d)Human language-ans 36 The AGC voltage in a radio receiver is proportional to a)The amount of modulation b)The amplitude of audio signal c)The amplitude of the I.F carrier-ans d)None of the above 37.The transformer through which the output of an audio amplifier is fed to a loudspeaker is meant for a)Impedance matching-ans b)Voltage am plication c)Resistance matching d)Current am plication 38. In a digital computer, an index register is used for a)Counting number of times a program is executed b)Performing arithmetic and logic operations c)address modification purpose-ans d) Temporary storage of result 39 A micro program is a a) Program for microcomputer b) Program written in assembly language c) Program written in high level language d) Sequencing program for the control unit of any processor-ans 40 The output of a diode detector contains a)Modulating signal-ans D.C.Voltage c) R.F.Ripple d) All the above 41.when a positive gate voltage is applied to MOSFET, it is said to be a)Enhancement mode-ans b)Depletion mode c)Conduction mode d)None of the above 42 A major advantage of an emitter follower is that is provides a)Maximum gain-ans b0Maximum efficiency c)maximum output impedance d) Minimum distortion 43 The advantage of self-correcting code is that a)It is weighted code b)It has even parity c)It is easy to decode electronically-ans d)all the above 44 a six bit alpha numeric code is able to code a)36 chracter b)48 character c) 64 character-ans d)128 character 45 For emitter coupled logic, the switching speed is very high because a) The transistors are not saturated when conducting-ans b) Negative logic is used c) Emitter coupled transistor are used d) Multi emitter transistors are used 46 which of the following circuits exhibits memory? a)NAND gate b)Ex. Gate c)a stable multivibrator d)Bi stable multivibrator-ans 47.Modem is a a) Code changing system b) Programe conversion c)Modulator- demoductor system-ans d)Demodulator-modulator system 48.Waveguides and NOT used for frequencies below a)1GHz -ans b)10GHz c)100GHz d)500 GHz 49 The number 149 in octal code will be a)154 b)178 d)254 d)225-ans 50 what is the function of a feeler guage? a)To check screw pitch b)To check the surface roughness c) To check thickness of clearness d)To check radius-ans RRB Computer Questions RRB computer Programming Questions, C,C++,CH|RRB Aptitude Reasoning, General Awareness RRB Electronics ,Mechanical, Computer and Diesel Engg questions with answers RRB Computer Science Questions 1.Pascal, BASIC and C are programming languages, while C++ is an _________ language. a)Assembly language b)Procedural c)Object-oriented programming-Answer d)Programming 2.Which of the following are good reasons to use an object-oriented language? a)You can define your own data types -Answer b)Program statements are simple than in procedural language c)An OO Program can be taught to correct its own errors d)It?s easier to conceptualize an OO program-Answer 3.When a language has the capability to produce new data types, it is said to be a)reprehensible b)encapsulated c)overloaded d)extensible-Answer 4.A normal C++ operator that acts in special ways on newly defined data types is said to be a)glorified b)encapsulated c)classified d)overloaded-Answer 5.Memorizing the new terms used in C++ is a)critically important b)something you can return to later-Answer c)the key to wealth and success d)completely irrelevant 6.Protecting data from access by unauthorized functions is called _____ a)extensibility b)encapsulation-Answer c)overloading d)inheritance 7.Dividing a program into functions a)is the key to OOP b)makes the program easier to conceptualize-Answer c)may reduce the size of the program-Answer d)makes the program run faster 8.True or falseIn an assignment statement, the value on the left of the equal sign is always equal to the value on the right-False 9.True or false:It?s perfectly all right to use variables of different data types in the same arithmetic expression.-True 10.A relational operator a)assigns one operand to another b)yields a Boolean result c)compares two operands-Answer d)logically combines two operands 11.A variable defined within a block is visible a)from the point of definition onward in the program b)from the point of definition onward in the function c)from the point of definition onward in the block-Answer d)throughout the function 12.True or false:Relational operators have a higher precedence than arithmetic operators.-False 13.The library function exit () causes an exit from a)the loop in which it occurs b)the block in which it occurs c)the function in which it occurs d)the program in which it occurs-Answer 14.The getche () library function a)returns a character when the key is pressed-Answer b)returns a character when Enter is pressed c)displays a character on the screen when any key is pressed-Answer d)does not display a character on the screen 15.The & & and operators a)compare two numeric values b)combine two numeric values c)compare two Boolean values-Answer d)combine two Boolean values 16.The break statement causes an exit a)only from the innermost loop b) only from the innermost switch c) from all loops and switches-Answer d)from the innermost loop or switch 17.The goto statement causes control to go to a)an operator b)a label-Answer c)a variable d)a function 18.A structure brings together a group of a)items of the same data type b)related data items-Answer c)integers with user-defined names d)variables-Answer 19.True or false:A structure specifier creates space in memory for a variable-True 20.An enumerated data type brings together a group of a)items of different data types b)related data variables c)integers with user-defined names d)constant values-Answer 21.A function?s single most important role is to a)give a name to a block of code b)related data variables c)accept arguments and provide a return value d)help organize a program into conceptual units-Answer 22.Which of the following can?t legitimately be passed to a function? a)a constant b)a variable c)a structure d)a header file-Answer 23.When an argument is passed by reference a)a variable is created in the function to hold the argument?s value-Answer bThe function cannot access the argument?s value c)a temporary variable is created in the calling program to hold the argument?s value d)the function accesses the argument?s original value in the calling program 24.Overloaded functions a)are a group of functions with the same name b)all have the same number and types of arguments c)make life simpler for programmers-Answer d)may fail unexpectedly due to stress 25.A default argument has a value that a)may be supplied by the calling program-Answer b)may be supplied by the function -Answer c)must have a constant value d)must have a variable value 26.A static automatic variable is used to a)make a variable visible to several functions bmake a variable visible to only one function-Answer c)conserve memory when a function is not executing d)retain a value when a function is not executing -Answer 27.In a class specifier, data or functions designated private are accessible a)to any function in the program b)only if you know the password c)to member functions of that class -Answer d)only to public members of the class 28.True or false:In a class you can have more than one constructor with the same name -True 29.An array element is accessed using a)a first-in first-out approach b)the dot operator c)a member name d)an index number-Answer 30.When an array name is passed to a function, the function a)accesses exactly the same array as the calling program-Answer b)accesses a copy of the array passed by the program c)refers to the array using the same name as that used by the calling program d)refers to the array using a different name from that used by the calling program-Answer 31.To convert from a user-defined class to a basic type, you would most likely use a)a built-in conversion function b)a one-argument constructor c)an overloaded = operator d) a conversion function that?s a member of the class-Answer 32.Inheritance is a way to a)make general classes into more specific classes-Answer b)pass arguments to objects of classes c)add features to existing classes without rewriting them-Answer d)improve data-hiding and encapsulation 33.A ?child? class is said to be from a base class a)parent class b)derived class-Answer c)existing class 34.The scope-resolution operator (:) usually a)limits the visibility of variables to a certain function b)tells what base class, a class is derived from c)specifies a particular class-Answer d)resolves ambiguities-Answer 35.A class hierarchy a)shows the same relationships as an organization chart b)describes ?has a? relationships c)describes ?is a kind of ? relationships -Answer d)shows the same relationships as a family tree 36.A pointer is a)the address of a variable b)an indication of the variable to be accessed next c)a variable for storing addresses -Answer d)the data type of an address variable 37The new operator a)returns a pointer to a variable b)creates a variable called new c)obtains memory for a new variable-Answer d)tells how much memory is available 38.In a linked list a)each link contains a pointer to the next link-Answer b)an array of pointers point to the links c)each link contains data or a pointer to data-Answer d)the links are stored in an array 39.If you wanted to sort many large objects or structures, it would be most efficient to place them in an array and sort the array b)place pointers to them in an array and sort the array-Answer c)place them in a linked list and sort the linked list d)place references to them in an array and sort the array 40.A C++ stream is a)the flow of control through a function b)a flow of data from one place to another-Answer 41.To write data that contains variable of type float, to an object of type of stream, you should use a)the insertion operator b)seekg () c)write ()-Answer d)put () 42. Mode bits such as APP and ATE can?t do any of the following: a)are defined in the IOS class b)can specify if a file is open for reading or writing c)work with the put() and get() functions-Answer d)specify ways of opening a file 43.Redirection redirects a)a stream from a file to the screen -Answer ba file from a device to a stream c)a device from the screen to a file d)the screen from a device to a stream 44.The process of allocating memory at run time is know as a)Static memory allocation b)dynamic memory allocation-Answer c)memory reallocation 45.In C language, a block of memory may be allocated using the function acalloc b)malloc-Answer c)free d)realloc 46.___________ allocates multiple blocks of storage, each of the same size. and then sets all bytes to zero. a)malloc b)calloc-Answer c)free d)realloc 47.Structures which contain a member field that point to the member field that point to the same structure types are called astructure within a structure b)self-referencial structure-Answer cunions 48.C does not have an operator for a)modulo division b)unary c)exponentiation-Answer d)Bitwise 49.C compilers support fundamental data types a)5 b)3 c)4-Answer d)2 50.Every C program must have one _________ function section a)printf () b)main ()-Answer c)getch () RRB Solved Question Papers Indian Railways Indian Railways Basic general awareness questions with answers,Indian Railways first, important information's for RRB's upcoming written tests. RRB's written test model questions for different zones. RRB -Railway Recruitment Board, latest recruitment information's. DMRC,Metro Rail corporation written test procedures general awareness questions with answers Indian Railways (reporting mark IR) is an Indian state-owned enterprise, owned and operated by the government of India through the Ministry of Railways. It is one of the world's largest railway networks comprising 115,000 km (71,000 mi) of track over a route of 65,000 km (40,000 mi) and 7,500 stations. As of December 2012, it transported over 25 million passengers daily (over 9 billion on an annual basis). In 2011, IR carried over 8,900 million passengers annually or more than 24 million passengers daily (roughly half of which were suburban passengers) and 2.8 million tons of freight daily. In 2011-2012 Indian Railways had revenues of 111984.89 crore (US$20 billion) which consists of 69675.97 crore (US$13 billion) from freight and 28645.52 crore (US$5.2 billion) from passengers tickets. Railways were first introduced to India in 1853 from Bombay to Thane. In 1951 the systems were nationalized as one unit, the Indian Railways, becoming one of the largest networks in the world. IR operates both long distance and suburban rail systems on a multi-gauge network of broad, metre and narrow gauges. It also owns locomotive and coach production facilities at several places in India and are assigned codes identifying their gauge, kind of power and type of operation. Its operations cover twenty four states and three union territories and also provides limited international services to Nepal, Bangladesh and Pakistan. Indian Railways is the world's ninth largest commercial or utility employer, by number of employees, with over 1.4 million employees. As for rolling stock, IR holds over 239,281 Freight Wagons, 59,713 Passenger Coaches and 9,549 Locomotives (43 steam, 5,197 diesel and 4,309 electric locomotives). The trains have a 5 digit numbering system as the Indian Railways runs about 10,000 trains daily. As of 31 March 2013, 23,541 km (14,628 mi) (36%) of the total 65,000 km (40,000 mi) km route length was electrified.[4] Since 1960, almost all electrified sections on IR use 25,000 Volt AC traction through overhead catenary delivery. The history of rail transport in India began in the mid-nineteenth century. In 1849, there was not a single kilometre of railway line in India. A British engineer, Robert Maitland Brereton, was responsible for the expansion of the railways from 1857 onwards. The Allahabad-Jabalpur branch line of the East Indian Railway had been opened in June 1867 Railway zones Indian Railways is divided into several zones, which are further sub-divided into divisions. The number of zones in Indian Railways increased from six to eight in 1951, nine in 1952 and sixteen in 2003.[9][10] Each zonal railway is made up of a certain number of divisions, each having a divisional headquarters. There are a total of sixty-eight divisions. Each of the sixteen zones is headed by a General Manager (GM) who reports directly to the Railway Board. The zones are further divided into divisions under the control of Divisional Railway Managers (DRM). The divisional officers of engineering, mechanical, electrical, signal and telecommunication, accounts, personnel, operating, commercial, security and safety branches report to the respective Divisional Manager and are in charge of operation and maintenance of assets. Further down the hierarchy tree are the Station Masters who control individual stations and the train movement through the track territory under their stations' administration. Production units Indian Railways manufactures much of its rolling stock and heavy engineering components at its six manufacturing plants, called Production Units, which are managed directly by the Ministry. Popular rolling stock builders such as CLW and DLW for electric and diesel locomotives; ICF and RCF for passenger coaches are Production Units of Indian Railways ndian railways uses four gauges, the 1,676 mm (5 ft 6 in) broad gauge which is wider than the 1,435 mm (4 ft 8 1?2 in) standard gauge; the 1,000 mm (3 ft 3 3?8 in) metre gauge; and two narrow gauges, 762 mm (2 ft 6 in) and 610 mm (2 ft). Track sections are rated for speeds ranging from 75 to 160 km/h (47 to 99 mph). Indian Railways Type: Ministry (government department) Industry: Railways Founded: 16 April 1853[1] Headquarters New Delhi, India Area served India Services Passenger railways freight services Parcel carrier Catering and Tourism Services parking lot operations other related services Revenue 106647 crore (US$20 billion) (2011?12) Net income 14500 crore (US$2.7 billion) (2012?13) Owner(s) Government of India (100%) Employees 1.4 million (2011)[3] Parent Ministry of Railways through Railway Board (India) Divisions 17 Railway Zones Website www.indianrailways.gov.in Indian Railways Reporting mark IR Locale India Dates of operation 16 April 1853?Present Track gauge 1676 mm; 1000 mm; 762 mm; 610 mm Electrification 23,541 km Length 65,000 km Headquarters New Delhi, India Website www.indianrailways.gov.in 1. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started? (a) 1982 (b) 1989 (c) 1984 (d) 1992 Answer: C 2. Shatabdi Express train was started in (a) 1984 (b) 1988 (c) 1990 (d) 1985 Answer: B 3. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established? (a) Jamshedpur (b) Patiala (c) Perambur (d) Varanasi Answer: B 4. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways? (a) Central Railway (b) Northern Railway (c) Eastern Railway (d) Western Railway Answer: C 5. The railway station situated in the extreme south is (a) Chennai (b) Cochin (c) Kanyakumari (d) Trivandrum Answer: C 6. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called (a) dock platform (b) passenger platform (c) island platform (d) goods platform Answer: C 7. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done? (a) 1952 (b) 1950 (c) 1951 (d) 1954 Answer: B 8. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established? (a) 1954 (b) 1957 (c) 1959 (d) 1967 Answer: B 9. Railway Staff College is situated at (a) Bangalore (b) Secundrabad (c) Chennai (d) Vadodara Answer: D 10. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated? (a) Lucknow (b) Bangalore (c) Pune (d) New Delhi Answer: A 11. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true? (a) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad (b) Central railway - Bhopal (c) South Railway - Chennai (d) North Railway - New Delhi Answer: B 12. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started? (a) From Calcutta to Delhi (b) From Mumbai to Thane (c) From Mumbai to Surat (d) From Mumbai to Madras Answer: B 13. When was the first train in Indian started? (a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854 Answer: C 14. In which Governor-General?s reign railway lines in India were established? (a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Kenning (d) Lord Dalhousie Answer: D 15. A station where the rail lines end, is called (a) junction station (b) way-side-station (c) block station (d) terminal station Answer: D