IDBIBank Test of Quantitative Aptitude

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IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Date of Written Test :September 02, 2012 Selection Process: IDBI Bank written test Question type: Objective type multiple choice IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Test of quantitative aptitude IQs. 1-4. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 1. 14 13 22 55 212 1035 (1) 55 (2) 13 (3) 212 (4) 22 (5) None of these (1) 14 × 1 – 12 = 13, 13 × 2 – 22= 22, 22 × 3 –32 = 57, 57 × 4 – 4 2= 212, 212 × 5 – 52= 1035 55 is wrong, it should be 57 2. 217 224 213 226 210 228 (1) 213 (2) 226 (3) 210 (4) 228 (5) None of these (3) By adding and subtracting alternatively 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 (all prime nos.) we get the next term. In place of 210, it should be 209 3. 153 495 712 837 901 928 (1) 712 (2) 837 (3) 901 (4) 928 (5) None of these (5) Add 73,63, 53, 43, 33 to get the next term495 is wrong, it should be 496 4. 488 245 124 64 35 20.25 (1) 124 (2) 64 (3) 245 (4) 35 (5) None of these 488+2/2=245,245+3/2=124,124+4/2=64,64+5/2=34.5,34.5+6/2=40.5/2=20.25 Inplace of 35,it shouldbe 34.5 5. A 250 metres long train crosses a platform in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the train? (1) 25 metres/second (2) 20 metres/second (3) 22 metres/second (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these (4) Length of platform is not given Speed of train Length of train+ Length of platform/ Time taken 6. The compound interest earned on an amount of Rs 15,000 at the end of 3 years is Rs 3895.68. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.? (1) 8 (2) 6.5 (3) 5 (4) 12 5) None of these 3895.68 = 15000 7. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days. 20 women take 16 days to complete the same piece of work. 12 men and 10 women work together for 6 days. How many more days would 10 women alone require to complete the remaining piece of work? (1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 4 (4) 16 (5) None of these (1) Work done by 16 men in 8 days = work done by 20 women in 16 days ? 16 × 8M = 20 × 16W ? 2M = 5W 12M + 10W 5/2= × 12 + 10 = 40 W 20 × 16 = 320 women can do work in 1 day 40 women can do work in 320/40= 8 days 40 women can do work in 6 days 6/8 =3/4 Remaining work 1/4= work women days 1 2 0 1 6 1/4 10 x 8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘FORMULATE’ be arranged? (1) 81,000 (2) 40,320 (3) 3,62,880 (4) 1,53,420 (5) None of these (3) There are 9 different letters ? No. of ways = 9! = 362880 9. The frogs in a pond increase by 10% at the end of every year. If at the start of the year 2004, there were 2,14,000 frogs in the pond, then what would be the number of frogs in the pond by the end of the year 2006? (1) 2,35,400 (2) 2,68,940 (3) 2,64,328 (4) 2,98,644 (5) None of these (5) Reqd no. of frogs = 214000 (1+10/100)3=284834 Q. 10-14. In each of these questions, two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and find out the values of x and y and Give answer If (1) x<y (2) x>y (3)xy= (4)xy= (5) x=y or if the relationship cannot beestablished 10. I. 12x2= 6x II. y + x2= 0.45 11. I.x=6.25 II. y== 6.25 12. I. 20x – 33x + 7 = 0 15. On children’s day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 540 children. But on that particular day,120 children were absent. Thus, each child got 4 sweets extra. How many sweets was each child originally supposed to get? (1) 18 (2) 25 (3) 14 (4) 20 (5) None of these (3) Children present = 540 – 120 = 420 Let the no. of sweets got by each child be x ? Total sweets = 540x = 420(x + 4) ? x = 14 16. A boat covers a distance of 24 kms in 10 hours downstream. To cover the same distance upstream, the boat takes two hours longer. What is the speed of the boat in still waters? (1) 2 km/hr (2) 2.8 km/hr (3) 4 km/hr (4) 4.2 km/hr (5) None of these (5) Let the speed of the boat in still water be x km/hr and that of stream be y km/hr Downstream, speed of boat = x + y km/hr Upstream, speed of boat = x – y km/hr On solving, we get x = 2.2 km/hr 17. The circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose area is 121 sq cms. What is the area of the circle? (1) 44 sq cms (2) 154 sq cms (3) 121 sq cms (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 18. Sonia started a business by investing Rs 60,000. Six months later Vivek joined her by investing Rs 1,40,000. After one year Kirti joined them by investing Rs 1,20,000. At the end of two years from the commencement of the business, they earn a profit of Rs 4,50,000. What is Vivek’s share in the profit? (1) Rs 1,40,000 (2) Rs 1,98,500 (3) Rs 2,15,000 (4) Rs 2,10,000 (5) None of these Ratio of profits = Ratio of the investments by Sonia, Vivek and Kirti = 60000 × 24 : 140000 × 18 : 120000 × 12 = 4 : 7 : 4 ? Vivek’s share 7/4+7+4*450000= Rs 210000 19. An urn contains 4 green and 7 blue marbles. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that only two of them are blue? (1)49/55 (2)7/11 (3)28/ 55 (4)11/28 (5) None of these Qs. 20-24. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 1 and 3/4+1 and 5/8-2 and 4/5+1/2= (1)2 and 7/40 (2)1 and 7/40 (3)2 and 3/40 (4)1 and 3/40 (5 None of these 21. 14 × 18.6 ÷ 12 + 19.3 = ? (1) 41 (2) 33.5 3) 291.9 (4) 8.32 (5) None of these 22. 84.2× 642.1× 78.4× 563.5= 5? (1) 18.2 (2) 9.8 (3) 11.9 (4) 12.6 (5) None of these 23. (4)2+ (3)2= ? (1) 25 (2) 5 (3) 125 (4) 425 (5) None of these 24. 53% of 120 + 25% of 862 = ?% of 500 (1) 42.50 (2) 55.82 (3) 63.68 (4) 38.89 (5) None of these Qs. 25-29. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer: (1) if the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in StatementII alone is not sufficient to answer the question. (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 25. What is the area of the square? I. Measure of the diagonal of the square is 80 cms. II. The perimeter of the square is equal to the circumference of a circle. 26. What is Asha’s present salary? I. Her salary increases every year by 15 per cent. II. She joined the organization seven years ago. 27. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.? I. The compound interest acurred on an amount of Rs 1,500 at the end of 2 years is Rs 660. II. An amount doubles itself in 5 years with simple interest. 28. What is the total staff strength of the organization? I. 75% of the staff consists of male employees. II. The ratio of female to male employees in the organization is 1 : 3 respectively. 29. What is the two digit number? I. The sum of the two digits of the number is 8. II. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is lesser than the original number by 18. Qs. 30-34. Study the table carefully to answer the following questions: Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six different subjects 30. What are the approximate average marks obtained by all students in Hindi? (1) 45 (2) 51 (3) 62 (4) 59 (5) 66 31. What is the respective ratio of marks obtained by students A, B and C together in Maths to the marks obtained by students D, E and F together in Marathi? (1) 7 : 22 (2) 23 : 7 (3) 23 : 4 (4) 4 : 21 (5) None of these 32. Which student has scored the second highest in all the subjects together? (1) D (2) F (3) A (4) B (5) None of these 33. In order to pass the exam, if the students need minimum 75 marks in Social Studies and minimum 85 marks in Science, how many students have passed the exam? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these 34. What is the percentage of marks obtained by B in all the subjects together? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 68.62 (2) 66.83 (3) 69.24 (4) 64.84 (5) None of these Qs. 35-38. Study the graph carefully to answer thefollowing questions: 35. If the profit of Company B in the year 2003 was Rs 7,83,000, then what was its profit in the year 2000? (1) Rs 2,25,000 (2) 3,75,000 (3) Rs 4,16,000 (4) Rs 4,05,000 (5) None of these 36. What is the approximate average per cent profit of Company B over the years? (1) 58 (2) 40 (3) 53 (4) 62 (5) 46 37. If the profit of Company A in the year 1999 was Rs 1.5 lakhs, what was its profit in the year 2001? (1) Rs 2.65 lakhs (2) Rs 4.25 lakhs (3) Rs 3.15 lakhs (4) Rs 4.90 lakhs (5) None of these 38. Which of the following statements is definitely true? (1) Company B has made more profit than Company A in the year 2003. (2) Profit made by Company A and Company B in the year 2000 is the same. the year 1999 from the previous year is 10 per cent. (4) Company A has made lowest profit in the year 1999. (5) Profit of Company A remained the same in the year 1999 and 2000. 39. What is the per cent increase in per cent rise in profit of Company A in the year 2001 from the previous year? (1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 25 (5) None of these Qs. 40-44. Study the table carefully to answer the following questions: Number (in crores) of ball bearings manufactured by Six Companies over the years 40. What is the respective ratio of number of ball bearing manufactured by Company R in the year 1999 to those manufactured by Company T in the year 2003? (1) 16 : 17 (2) 17 : 16 (3) 23 : 21 (4) 21 : 23 (5) None of these 41. What is the approximate per cent increase in thenumber of ball bearings manufactured by Company P in heyear 2004, from the previous year? (1) 143 (2) 157 (3) 59 (4) 122 (5) 94 42. What is the average number of ball bearingsmmanufactured by all companies together in the year 2002? (1) 3360000 (2) 336000000 (3) 3360000000 (4) 33600000 (5) None of these 43. Number of ball bearings manufactured byCompany Q in the year 2000 is approximately what per cent of the total number of ball bearings manufactured by it in all the years together? (1) 24 (2) 32 (3) 11 (4) 29 (5) 17 44. How many more ball bearings need to be manufactured by Company S in the year 2004 to make the ratio between the number of ball bearings manufactured by Company S to those manufactured by Company U in the year 2004, 54 : 83 respectively? (1) 80000000 (2) 2500000 (3) 34000000 (4) 5000000 (5) None of these Qs. 45-49. Study the pie-chart carefully to answer the following questions: 45. What is the total number of men studying in the Institute? (1) 1665 (2) 2421 (3) 2025 (4) 1954 (5) None of these 46. Number of women studying Marketing are approximately what per cent of the total number of students in the Institute? (1) 5 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 7 (5) 2 47. What is the total number of men studying Banking and International Business? (1) 1125 (2) 297 (3) 1015 (4) 594 (5) None of these 48. Number of women studying Finance are what per cent of the number of men studying the same? (1) 80 (2) 65 (3) 95 (4) 70 (5) None of these 49. In which specialisation do the maximum number of women study? (1) HR (2) IT (3) Marketing (4) Finance (5) None of these IDBI Bank question papers IDBI bank Executives written test examination practice questions with answers,IDBI Bank aptitude,Reasoning questions with answers IDBI Bank previous years solved question papersIDBI Bank TEST- IV English Language practice questions with answers,IDBI Bank RECRUITMENT OF EXECUTIVES written test model questions for learn and practice,IDBI Bank RECRUITMENT OF EXECUTIVES aptitude reasoning english language questions and answers,IDBI Bank previous years largest collection of question papers IDBI Bank Reasoning and aptitude solved question papers Almost exams like Bank PO, Clerical, CDS, NDA, B. Ed., ETT comprise of questions from Reasoning (also known as Mental Ability or Aptitude). Here we provide a set of fifty Solved Sample Questions. The first fourty Questions are from verbal reasoning and last ten from non-verbal reasoning. 1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code? (1) %4$# (2) $3%# (3) $64% (4) %3$#-Answer (5) None of these 2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) TwoAnswer (4) Three (5) More than three 3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said ‘She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita? (1) Sister (2) Niece/ daughterAnswer (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) Pineapple (2) Guava (3) GrapesAnswer (4) Papaya (5) Pear 5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end? (1) S (2) BAnswer (3) A (4) K (5) None of these 6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code? (1) DIBJS (2) SBJID (3) SHBGD (4) SJBIDAnswer (5) None of these 7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) FH (2) KM (3) PR (4) CE (5) JMAnswer 8. If ‘ P Q' means ‘P is wife of Q', ‘P+Q' means ‘P is father of Q' and ‘P Q' means ‘P is sister of Q' then in G H +R D, how is G related to D? (1) Cannot be determined (2) MotherAnswer (3) Niece (4) Aunt (5) None of these 9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) ThreeAnswer (5) More than three 10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) 17 (2) 19 (3) 23 (4) 29 (5) 27Answer 11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once? (1) None (2) One (3) TwoAnswer (4) Three (5) More than three 12. If ‘?' means ‘x', $ means ‘+', # means ‘ ' and ‘©' means ‘-‘ then what is the value of 360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48? (1) 253 (2) 242 (3) 247Answer (4) 285 (5) None of these 13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric? (1) green (2) yellow (3) redAnswer (4) pink (5) None of these 14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y. (1) A (2) E (3) L (4) X (5) YAnswer 15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row? (1) 19Answer (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 18 (5) None of these Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings as follows: ‘A © B' means ‘A is smaller than B' ‘A # B' means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B' ‘A « B' means ‘A is greater than B' ‘A $ B' means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B' ‘A @ B' means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B' In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true. 16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J Conclusions: I. V © L II. S © J Answer-5 17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H Conclusions: I. M #H II. R © H Answer-2 18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M Conclusions: I. H «M II. H «G Answer-1 19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L Conclusions: I. R @ T II. J @ l Answer-4 20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F Conclusions: I. W $ K II. W @ K Answer-1 Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows. Give answer (5) if both I and II follow. 21. Statements: Some pens are books. All books are pencils. All pencils are jars. Conclusions: I. All books are jars. II. Some pens are pencils. Answer-5 22. Statements: Some bowls are spoons Some spoons are forks All forks are plates. Conclusions: I. Some bowls are forks. II. Some spoons are plates. Answer-2 23. Statements: Some bottles are jars. All jars are buckets. All buckets are tanks. Conclusions: I. All jars are tanks. II. Some buckets are tanks. Answer-5 24. Statements: Some phones are mobiles. Some mobiles are computers. Some computers are keys. Conclusions: I. Some phones are keys. II. Some computes are phones. Answer-4 25. Statements: All papers are files. Some files are folders. All folders are bags. Conclusions: I. Some files are bags. II. Some papers are folders. Answer-1 Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita? I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita. II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita. Answer-3 27. What is the code for ‘Play' in the code language? I. In the code language ‘play and dance' is written as ‘ka to pe' II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as ‘pe jo ra'. Answer-4 28. How many children are there in the class? I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom. II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top. Answer-5 29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta? I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta. II. Neeta is not the tallest. Answer-5 30. How many sons does Ramesh have? I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh. II. R is brother of H. Answer-5 Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow: 5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2 31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) $9F (2) R6% (3) 8PU (4) #B4 (5) 3BJ Answer-5 32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left? (1) L (2) R (3) 6 (4) I (5) None of these Answer-2 33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? EDH 9 « 7 I$F ? (1) 6RI (2) %R6 (3) R16 (4) %6R (5) None of these Answer-5 34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement? (1) K (2) @ (3) P (4) # (5) None of these Answer-1 35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three Answer-2 Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions. Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N. 36. Who is to the immediate left of L? (1) Q (2) O (3) K (4) N (5) None of these Answer-5 37. Who is to the immediate left of K? (1) N (2) J (3) Q (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Answer-3 38. Which of the following is the correct position of N? (1) Second to the right of K (2) To the immediate left of K (3) To the immediate right of M (4) To the immediate right of K (5) None of these Answer-4 39. Who is third to the right of P? (1) L (2) J (3) Q (4) N (5) None of these Answer-1 40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two? (1) PJO (2) OPJ (3) OPM (4) MPO (5) None of these Answer-2 Quantitative Aptitude Model Paper Questions Test – 1 1. By what number less than 1000 must 43259 be multiplied So that the last three figures to the right of the product may be 437? (a) 743 (b) 658 (c) 701 (d) None of these Answer-a 2. By what least number must 217800 be multiplied in order to make it a perfect square? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these Answer-a 3. Find the least number by which 19404 must be multiplied or divided so as to make it a perfect square. (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) None of these Answer-c 4. Find the smallest number which is a perfect square and contains 1400 as a factor. (a) 8670 (b) 9600 (c) 9000 (d) None of these Answer-b 5. Find in the blank indicated by a star in the number 456 so as to make it divisible by 33 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these Answer-a 6. By what least number must 6796 by multiplied or divided in order that the resulting number may be a perfect square? (a) 17 (b) 39 (c) 43 (d) None of these Answer-b 7. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving remainders 41,31 and 51 respectively. (a) 71 (b) 64 (c) 67 (d) None of these Answer-a 8. Find the greatest number that will divide 19409 and 43037 leaving remainders 17 and 29 respectively. (a) 178 (b) 192 (c) 194 (d) None of these Answer-b 9. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238, 1400 leaving remainders 41, 31 and 51 respectively. (a) 64 (b) 71 (c) 69 (d) None of these Answer-b 10. Find the greatest number which will divide 12288, 28200, and 44333 so as to leave the same remainder in each case. (a) 221 (b) 120 (c) 272 (d) None of these Answer-a IDBI bank Executives written test examination practice questions with answers,IDBI Bank aptitude,Reasoning questions with answers IDBI Bank previous years solved question papersIDBI Bank TEST- IV English Language practice questions with answers,IDBI Bank RECRUITMENT OF EXECUTIVES written test model questions for learn and practice,IDBI Bank RECRUITMENT OF EXECUTIVES aptitude reasoning english language questions and answers,IDBI Bank previous years largest collection of question papers IDBI Bank Reasoning solved question papers Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below. (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north. (ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them. (iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E. (iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors. 1. Which of the following statements may be false? (a) A is the 3rd to the left of F (b) D is 3rd to the left of E (c) F is 3rd the right of A (d) B is 3rd to the left of C (e) None of these Ans (d) 2. Which of the following statements is true? (a) C and E are neighbors (b) E is to the immediate left of F (c) C is to the immediate left of D (d) A is to the immediate left of D (e) None of these Ans (d) 3. Who is at the extreme right? (a) Data inadequate (b) G (c) B (d) E (e) None of these Ans (a) 4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors? (a) A, C and D, C (b) A, B and E, G (c) D, C and E, F (d) C, F and C, E (e) None of these Ans (c) 5. What is the position of F? (a) Immediate to the right of E. (b) Third to the left of G (c) Immediate to the left of C (d) 5th to the right of B (e) None of these Ans (e) 6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different. (a) ISLOJ (b) LUOQM (c) AKDGB (d) FPILG (e) NXQTO Ans (b) 7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4' exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4's and 6's together are there? 5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) None of these Ans (a) 8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number? 19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) None of these Ans (e) Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet. 9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language? (a) EDVDRJSI (b) EFUFRHSI (c) EFUFRJSI (d) EDUFRJSI (e) None of these Ans (c) 10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language? (a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO (b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO (c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO (d) CONFFDERATION (e) None of these Ans (b) 11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z (a) G (b) H (c) J (d) W (e) none of these Ans (a) 12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet? (a) five (b) one (c) four (d) Two (e) Three Ans (a) 13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group? (a) BROTHER : DORVEHT (b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ (c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT (d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP (e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF Ans (d) 14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters? (a) IB (b) LF (c) IE (d) FL (e) TL Ans (c) 15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR? (a) RWLGPF (b) EOFKUQ (c) EOFMXS (d) RWLEPD (e) RWLEND Ans (e) 16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India. (a) ANUMAY (b) IHSOK (c) TABROC (d) ADAMRAN (e)None of these Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park 17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first. (a) Night (b) Negative (c) Neighbour (d) Near (e) None of these Ans (d) 18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office. (a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 50 (e) None of these Ans (b) 19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been. (a) one day (b) two days (c) three days (d) four days (e) None of these Ans (c) 20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point. (a) 4 feet (b) 5 feet (c) 24 feet (d) 25 feet (e) None of these Ans (a) Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word. 21. ENCOURAGE (a) ANGER (b) GREEN (c) USAGE (d) COURAGE (d) None of these Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question 22. CONCENTRATE (a) CENTRE (b) CONCERN (c) TREAT (d) REASON (e) None of these Ans (d) 23. INTRANSIGENT (a) STAIN (b) TRAIN (c) RESIGN (d) TRACE (e) None of these Ans (d) 24. MAGNETIC (a) MENACE (b) GAIN (c) NAME (d) GAME (e) None of these Ans (a) 25. ENTHUSIASM (a) MITE (b) ASSIST (c) ATHENS (d) SENT (e) None of these Ans (b) Directions (questions 26 to30 ):Read the following information and answer the questions given below. (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north. (ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them. (iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E. (iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors. 26. Which of the following statements may be false? (a) A is the 3rd to the left of F (b) D is 3rd to the left of E (c) F is 3rd the right of A (d) B is 3rd to the left of C (e) None of these Ans (d) 27. Which of the following statements is true? (a) C and E are neighbors (b) E is to the immediate left of F (c) C is to the immediate left of D (d) A is to the immediate left of D (e) None of these Ans (d) 28. Who is at the extreme right? (a) Data inadequate (b) G (c) B (d) E (e) None of these Ans (a) 29. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors? (a) A, C and D, C (b) A, B and E, G (c) D, C and E, F (d) C, F and C, E (e) None of these Ans (c) 30. What is the position of F? (a) Immediate to the right of E. (b) Third to the left of G (c) Immediate to the left of C (d) 5th to the right of B (e) None of these Ans (e) 31 Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different. (a) ISLOJ (b) LUOQM (c) AKDGB (d) FPILG (e) NXQTO Ans (b) 32 . In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4' exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there? 5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) None of these Ans (a) 33. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number? 19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) None of these Ans (e) Directions (Q.34 & 35): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet. 34 . How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language? (a) EDVDRJSI (b) EFUFRHSI (c) EFUFRJSI (d) EDUFRJSI (e) None of these Ans (c) 35 . How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language? (a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO (b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO (c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO (d) CONFFDERATION (e) None of these Ans (b) 36 . If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z (a) G (b) H (c) J (d) W (e) none of these Ans (a) 37 . How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet? (a) five (b) one (c) four (d) Two (e) Three Ans (a) 38 . Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group? (a) BROTHER : DORVEHT (b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ (c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT (d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP (e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF Ans (d) 39 . Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters? (a) IB (b) LF (c) IE (d) FL (e) TL Ans (c) 40 . Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR? (a) RWLGPF (b) EOFKUQ (c) EOFMXS (d) RWLEPD (e) RWLEND Ans (e) 41 . If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India. (a) ANUMAY (b) IHSOK (c) TABROC (d) ADAMRAN (e)None of these Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park 42 . If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first. (a) Night (b) Negative (c) Neighbour (d) Near (e) None of these Ans (d) 43. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office. (a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 50 (e) None of these Ans (b) 44. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been. (a) one day (b) two days (c) three days (d) four days (e) None of these Ans (c) 45 . Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point. (a) 4 feet (b) 5 feet (c) 24 feet (d) 25 feet (e) None of these Ans (a) Directions (Questions 46 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word. 46 ENCOURAGE (a) ANGER (b) GREEN (c) USAGE (d) COURAGE (d) None of these Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question 47. CONCENTRATE (a) CENTRE (b) CONCERN (c) TREAT (d) REASON (e) None of these Ans (d) 48. INTRANSIGENT (a) STAIN (b) TRAIN (c) RESIGN (d) TRACE (e) None of these Ans (d) 49. MAGNETIC (a) MENACE (b) GAIN (c) NAME (d) GAME (e) None of these Ans (a) 50 ENTHUSIASM (a) MITE (b) ASSIST (c) ATHENS (d) SENT (e) None of these Ans (b) IDBIBank Test of Quantitative Aptitude IDBI Bank Placement Papers IDBI stands for Industrial Development bank of India (IDBI) latest job recruitment details,syllabus and examination pattern,IDBI banks job interview and written test question paper and procedure for Probationary officer, Executive recruitment written test pattern and procedure, specialists officers job recruitment questions papers with answers,IDBI Date of Written Test at all centers,IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Date of Written Test :September 02, 2012 IDBI bank based general awareness,IDBI Learn and practice model question papers with latest syllabus and pattern,IDBI free solved sample placement papers of Test of Quantitative aptitude,IDBI Test of Reasoning,IDBI Test of working English language solved question papers,IDBI bank fully solved previous years question papers,IDBI bank upcoming job interview written test examination details and syllabus latest test pattern .. IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Date of Written Test :September 02, 2012 Selection Process: IDBI Bank written test Question type: Objective type multiple choice IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Test of quantitative aptitude Directions (Q.1.5) In each of the following questions a number series is given which has only one wrong number. You have to find out the wrong number. 1 7.5 47.5 87.5 157.5 247.5 357.5 487.5 (1)357.5 (2)87.5 (3)157.5 (4)7.5 (5)47.5 (Ans) 2 1500 1581 1664 1749 1833 1925 2016 (1) 1581 (2) 1664 (3) 1833(Ans) (4) 1925 (5) 1749 3 1331 2197 3375 4914 6859 9261 12167 (1) 4914(Ans) (2) 6859 (3) 9261 (4) 2197 (5) 12167 4 13 16 21 27 39 52 69 (1) 21 (2) 39 (3) 27(Ans) (4) 52 (5) 16 5. 66 91 120 153 190 233 276 (1) 120 (2) 233 (Ans) (3) 153 (4) 276 (5) 190 What will come in place of the question marks (?) in the following questions? 6 22.5 ? 0.05 = ? (1) 11.25 (2) 1.125 (Ans) (3) 22.55 (4) 112.5 (5) None of these 7 999 + 111 ? 0.5 = ? (1) 555 (2) 500 (3) 1054.5 (Ans) (4) 1110.5 (5) None of these 8 40% of 250 = 50% of ? (1) 200 (Ans) (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 400 (5) None of these 9 (4)? = 1024 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these (Ans) 10. ½ +¼ + ¾ + 2/3 = ? (1) 2 1/5 (2) 1/16 (3) 2 1/16 (4) 2 1/6 (Ans) (5) None of these Directions (Q.11.15 ) Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below. Installed Capacity and Production of Vehicles over the Years image 11The only category of automobiles, which experienced a steady decline in production was? (1) Motor bikes (2) Jeeps (3) Autos (4) Tempos (5) None of these (Ans) 12 Which of the following statements are true? I.All categories of automobiles experienced a growth in production between 2001 and 2002. II. In 2002 the capacity utilization of jeeps was higher than the of motor bikes. III. Cars, scooters and autos experienced a decline in production from 2001 to2002 (1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (Ans) (4) II and III only (5) I and III only 13. Capacity utilization was the highest for which category of automobiles in the year 2002? (1) Jeeps (2) Tempos (3) Scooter (4) Motor bikes (Ans) (5) None of these 114 Which of the following experienced no growth in installed capacity over the period of 2000 to 2002? (1) Cars (2) Motor bikes (3) Jeeps (Ans) (4) Autos (5) None of these 15 Capacity utilization was the lowest for which category of automobiles in the year 2000? (1) Scooters (2) Tempos (Ans) (3) Cars (4) Autos (5) None of these Directions (Q.16-25) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 16 (98 ?198) ÷ (48 ? 148) = ? (1) 3.13 (2) 2.43 (3) 2.73 (Ans) (4) 3.53 (5) 2.41 17. (2.0001)3 =? (1) 6 (2) 6.75 (3) 5 (4) 4 (5) 8 (Ans) 18 5.6% of 240 ÷ 0.3% of 480 = ? (1) 8.43 (2) 9.33 (Ans) (3) 7.53 (4) 8.33 (5) 13.44 19 ?4556 + ?7943 ? 56 =? (1) 100 (Ans) (2) 150 (3) 200 (4) 250 (5) 125 20. (1786 + 23.894 + 3251) ÷ 50 = ? (1) 81 (2) 121 (3) 131 (4) 101 (Ans) (5) 91 21 The perimeter of a square is 164 metres. What is the area of the square? (1) 1089 sq. metres (2) 1764 sq. metres (3) 1661 sq. metres (4) 1681 sq. metres (Ans) (5) None of these 22. The product of two successive numbers is 1980. Which is the smaller number? (1) 34 (2) 44 (Ans) (3) 35 (4) 45 (5) None of these 23. The difference between 55% of a number and 25% of the same number is 11.10. What is 75% of that number? (1) 27.75 (Ans) (2) 37 (3) 21.25 (4) 45 (5) None of these 24. The average of the ages of 3 friends is 23. Even if the age of the 4th friend is added the average remains 23. What is the age of the 4th friend ? (1) 32 (2) 21 (3) 23 (Ans) (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 25. 8 men working for 9 hours a day complete a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days can 7 men working for 10 hours a day complete the same piece of work? (1) 21 days (2) 20 3/5 days (3) 20 ½ days (4) 21 3/7 days (5) None of these (Ans) Directions (Q.26.) Study the following table carefully to answer these questions Image. 26. What are the average marks obtained by all students in English? (1) 52.5 (2) 64.38 (3) 56.38 (4) 60.5 (5) None of these (Ans) 27. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all the student in Science? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 99 (2) 82.78 (Ans) (3) 88.72 (4) 78.88 (5) None of the above 28. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by D in all subjects? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 72.88 (2) 76.28 (3) 73.17 (4) 72.68 (5) None of these (Ans) 29. Which student has scored in Maths closest to the average marks in Maths? (1) P (2) Q (3) T (Ans) (4) F (5) None of these 30. What is the ratio between total marks obtained in all subjects by F and G respectively? (1) 87:89 (Ans) (2) 89:87 (3) 67:69 (4) 69:67 (5) None of these 31. If 12a +12b =45, what is the average of a and b? (1) 3.75 (2) 1.875 (Ans) (3) 3.875 (4) 1.75 (5) None of these 32. How much part of a day is 45 minutes? (1) 1/42 (2) 1/24 (3) 1/32 (Ans) (4) 1/48 (5) None of these 33. Samir drove at the speed of 45 km from home to a resort. Returning over the same route, he got stuck in traffic and took an hour longer, also he could drive only at the speed of 40 km. How many kilometers did he drive each way ? (1) 250 km (2) 300 km (3) 310 km (4) 275 km (5) None of these (Ans) 34. What is the greater of two numbers whose product is 640, if the sum of the two numbers, exceeds their difference by 32? (1) 45 (2) 50 (3) 55 (4) 40 (Ans) (5) None of these 35. On a test consisting of 150 questions. Rita answered 40% of the first 75 questions correctly. What per cent of the other 75 questions does she need to answer correctly for her grade on the entire exam to be 60%? (1) 80 (Ans) (2) 70 (3) 40 (4) 50 (5) None of these Directions (Q.36.150) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 36. What is the speed of the bus? I. The bus covers a distance of 80 km in 5 h. II. The bus covers a distance of 160 km in 10 h. 37. What is the ratio of the number of fresher to the number of seniors a college? I. The ratio of males and females in the college is 2:3 II. There are 1125 females fresher in the college. 38. What is Mr. Mehta?s present income? I. Mr. Mehta?s income increase by 10% every year. II. His income will increase by Rs. 2500 this year. 39. What is Nidhi?s age? I. Nidhi is 3 time younger to Rani. II. Surekha is twice the age of Rani and the sum of their ages is 72. 40. What is the ratio of the total number of girls to the total number of boys in the school? I. The ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls, last year was 4:5 II. There are 3500 students in the school out of which 60% are boys.