CDAC Electrical paper

CDAC electronics and electrical questions with answers, CDAC previous years solved question papers, CDAC model questions for practice,CDAC largest collection free solved sample placement papers CDAC largest collection of technical question papers CDAC Technical Question papers 1. Laminations of core are generally made of (a) case iron (b) carbon (c) silicon steel (d) stainless steel Ans: c 2. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of lamina-tions of a D.C. machine ? (a) 0.005 mm (b) 0.05 mm (c) 0.5 m (d) 5 m Ans: c 3. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to (a) reduce the bulk (b) provide the bulk (c) insulate the core (d) reduce eddy current loss Ans: d 4. The resistance of armature winding depends on (a) length of conductor (b) cross-sectional area of the conductor (c) number of conductors (d) all of the above Ans: d 5. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of (a) mica (b) copper (c) cast iron (d) carbon Ans: b 6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of (a) copper lugs (b) resistance wires (c) insulation pads (d) brazing Ans: a 7. In a commutator (a) copper is harder than mica (b) mica and copper are equally hard (c) mica is harder than copper (d) none of the above Ans: c 8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by (a) rivets (b) counter sunk screws (c) brazing (d) welding Ans: b 9. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of (a) motion of conductor (b) lines of force (c) either of the above (d) none of the above Ans: b 10. Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates (a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force (b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced (c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current (d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor Ans: b 11. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb points towards (a) direction of induced e.m.f. (b) direction of flux (c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated e.m.f. (d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux Ans: d 12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally (a) ball bearings (b) bush bearings (c) magnetic bearmgs (d) needle bearings Ans: a 13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be (a) severe sparking (b) rough commutator surface (c) imperfect contact (d) any of the above Ans: d 14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always (a) double the number of poles (b) same as the number of poles (c) half the number of poles (d) two Ans: b 15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ? (a) Lap winding (b) Wave winding (c) Either of (a) and (b) above (d) Depends on other features of design Ans: b 16. In a four-pole D.C. machine (a) all the four poles are north poles (b) alternate poles are north and south (c) all the four poles are south poles (d) two north poles follow two south poles Ans: b 17. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used (a) where low voltage and high currents are involved (b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved (c) in both of the above cases (d) in none of the above cases Ans: a 18. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator (a) is amenable to better voltage con-trol (b) is more stable (c) has exciting current independent of load current (d) has all above features Ans: d 19. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of (a) current (b) voltage (c) speed (d) none of above Ans: c 20. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in (a) speed (b) load (c) voltage (d) speed and voltage Ans: b 21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through (a) commutator (b) solid connection (c) slip rings (d) none of above Ans: a 23. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of (a) carbon (b) soft copper (c) hard copper (d) all of above Ans: a 24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then induced e.m.f. is given by (a)Blv (b)Blv2 (c)Bl2v (d)Bl2v2 Ans: a 25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 Ans: b 26. The material for commutator brushes is generally (a) mica (b) copper (c) cast iron (d) carbon Ans: d 27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally (a) graphite (b) paper (c) mica (d) insulating varnish Ans: c 28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors which (a) lie under south pole (b) lie under north pole (c) lie under interpolar region (d) are farthest from the poles Ans: c 29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic neutral axis, there will be (a) demagnetisation only (b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation (c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising (d) cross magnetisation only Ans: c 30. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is (a) crossmagnetising (b) demagnetising (c) magnetising (d) none of above Ans: a 31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the floating condition (a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover (b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft (c) to avoid burning of switch contacts (d) all above Ans: d 32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to (a) oscillating magnetic field (b) pulsating magnetic flux (c) relative rotation between field and armature (d) all above Ans: c 33. In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in (a) odour of barning insulation (b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations (c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the voltage (d) all above 34. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is (a) wave wound (b) lap wound (c) delta wound (d) duplex wound Ans: b 35. Welding generator will have (a) lap winding (b) wave winding (c) delta winding (d) duplex wave winding Ans: a 36. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator segments is equal to (a) number of armature coils (b) number of armature coil sides (c) number of armature conductors (d) number of armature turns Ans: a 37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable (a) rotary converter (b) mercury are rectifier (c) induction motor D.C. generator set (d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set Ans: c 38. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is (a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path (b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density (c) to support the field coil (d) to discharge all the above functions Ans: d 39. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is (a) multiplication of front and back pitches (b) division of front pitch by back pitch (c) sum of front and back pitches (d) difference of front and back pitches Ans: d 40. A D.C. welding generator has (a) lap winding (b) wave moving (c) duplex winding (d) any of the above Ans: a 41. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ? (a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation (b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature winding (c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch (d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt generators Ans: d 42. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator (a) reduces generator e.m.f. (b) increases armature speed (c) reduces interpoles flux density (d) results in sparking trouble Ans: a 43. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by (a) electromagnets (b) permanent magnets (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Ans: a 44. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on (a) speed of armature (b) type of winding (c) voltage (d) amount of current to be collected Ans: d 45. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators (a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits (b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air (c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction (d) none of the above Ans: c 46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing direct current of a D.C. generator ? (a) Dummy coils (b) Commutator (c) Eye bolt (d) Equilizer rings Ans: b 47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by (a) using conductor of annealed copper (b) using commutator with large number of segments (c) using carbon brushes of superior quality (d) using equiliser rings Ans: c 48. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for (a) high voltage, high current (b) low voltage, high current (c) high voltage, low current (d) low voltage, low current Ans: b 49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature while generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A and B will be (a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 3 Ans: b 50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least ? (a) Graphite brushes (b) Carbon brushes (c) Metal graphite brushes (d) None of the above Ans: c 51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be (a) E/2 (b) 2E (c) slightly less than E (d) E Ans: b 52. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon (a) size of air gap (b) shape of the pole shoe (c) clearance between tips of the ad¬jacent pole shoes (d) all of the above Ans: 53. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of (a) silicon steel (b) copper (c) non-ferrous material (d) cast-iron Ans: a 9.63. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires (a) brushes should be of proper grade and size (b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders (c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut (d) all of the above Ans: d 54. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is (a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is connected (b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Ans: c 55. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used (a) to increase the generated voltage (b) to reduce sparking (c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections (d) due to (b) and (c) above Ans: 56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure that (a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar (b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar (c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection (d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the armature (e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied Ans: d 57. D.C. series generator is used (a) to supply traction load (b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage (c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder (d) for none of the above purpose Ans: c 58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any residual magnetism in the poles (a) series generator (b) shunt generator (c) compound generator (d) self-excited generator Ans: d 59. Interpole flux should be sufficient to (a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f. (b) neutralise the armature reaction flux (c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating e.m.f. induced in the coil (d) perform none of the above functions Ans: c 60. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile batteries is (a) series generator (b) shunt generator (c) long shunt compound generator (d) any of'the above Ans: c 61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the same when (a) r.p.m. is more than 300 (b) r.p.m. is less than 300 (c) number of poles is 4 (d) number of poles is 2 Ans: d 62. Permeance is the reciprocal of (a) flux density (b) reluctance (c) ampere-turns (d) resistance Ans: b 63. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles (a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead (b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole (c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead (d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating e.m.f. Ans: a 64. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to (a) flux/pole (b) speed of armature (c) number of poles (d) all of the above Ans: b 65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral axis, when (a) there is no load on|he generator (b) the generator runs on full load (c) the generator runs on overload (d) the generator runs on designed speed Ans: a 66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the coil is neutralised by all of the following except (a) interpoles (b) dummy coils (c) compensating winding (d) shifting of axis of brushes Ans: b 67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is (a) sinusoidal (b) triangular (c) pulsating (d) flat topped Ans: d 68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly (a) 150 V (b) 175 V (c) 240 V (d) 290 V Ans: c 69. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is (a) to reduce eddy current losses (b) to enhance flux density (c) to amplify voltage (d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor Ans: d 70. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by (a) speed limitation (b) armature heating (c) insulation restrictions (d) saturation of iron Ans: 71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be (a) imperfect brush contact (b) field resistance less than the critical resistance (c) no residual magnetism in the generator (d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism Ans: b 72. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means (a) neutralising residual magnetism (b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source (c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel (d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles Ans: b 73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be (a) 640 V (b) 620 V (c) 600 V (d) 580 V Ans: d 74. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of (a) brushes (b) field (c) armature (d) load Ans: b 75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as to bring them (a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis (b) in magnetic neutral axis (c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis Ans: a 76. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies (a) along neutral axis (b) along field axis (c) in any of the above positions (d) in none of the above positions Ans: a 77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating as a motor would be (a) cumulatively compounded long shunt (b) differentially compounded long shunt (c) cumulatively compounded short shunt (d) differentially compounded short shunt Ans: b 78. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C. machine (a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other (b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other (c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving Ans: a 79. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding. (a) Insulation failure between two com-mutator bars (6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil (c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded (d) All of the above Ans: d 80. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to (a) abrasion from dust (b) excessive spring pressure (c) rough commutator bars (d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars (e) all of the above factors Ans: e 81. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to (a) number of pole pairs (b) number of poles (c) number of parallel paths (d) number of commutator segments Ans: a 82. A D.C. generator can be considered as (a) rectifier (b) primemover (c) rotating amplifier (d) power pump Ans: c 83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f. induced is to be utilised is called (a) rotor (b) stator (c) field (d) armature Ans: d 84. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of (a) total copper loss and mechanical loss (b) armature copper loss and iron loss (c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss (d) iron loss and mechanical loss Ans: d 85. Lap winding is composed of (a) any even number of conductors (b) any odd number of conductors (c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2 (d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles Ans: a 86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output voltage will (a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain unaffected (d) fluctuate heavily Ans: b 87. An exciter for a turbo generator is a (a) separately excited generator (b) shunt generator (c) series generator (d) compound generator Ans: b 88. In case of a flat compounded generator (a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage (b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator (c) voltage remains constant irrespec¬tive of the load (d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator Ans: c 89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on no-load ? (a) Series generator (b) Shunt generator (c) Compound generator (d) Separately excited generator Ans: a 90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any residual magnetism in the poles ? (a) Series generator (b) Shunt generator (c) Compound generator (d) None of the above Ans: d 91. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is (a) almost zero (b) less than noload terminal voltage (c) more than noload terminal voltage (d) equal to no-load terminal voltage Ans: c 92. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is (a) negligibly low (b) equal to no-load terminal voltage (c) more than no-load terminal voltage (d) less than no-load terminal voltage Ans: b 93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the following reasons except (a) armature reaction (b) armature resistance drop (c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature (d) commutation Ans: d 94. In a D.C. generator (a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic - armature reaction (b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop (c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop - armature reaction (d) magnetisation characteristic = external characteristic Ans: c 95. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature voltage wave (a) will be zero (b) will be of 5 Hz (c) willbeof5xiVHz (d) will be of v Hz 5 Ans: b 96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit voltage will be (a) zero (b) about 2 V (c) about 50 V (d) 220 V Ans: b 97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction , (a) is always present (b) is always absent (c) may be sometimes present (d) none of the above Ans: a 98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will be (a) zero (b) small (c) the same as rated voltage (d) high Ans: a 99. Armature reaction in a generator results in (a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip (b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip (c) damagnetising the centre of all poles (d) magnetising the centre of all poles Ans: a 100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would produce high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its own insulation failure. (a) Series field (b) Compensating field (c) Inter pole field (d) Shunt field Ans: d General - other C-DAC C questions with answers|C-DAC Placement paper Questions|C-DAC Previously asked Questions C-DAC Technical Questions |C-DAC Technical Practice Tests C-Dac Sample quesion paper - pattern 3Answer: 1. What is data structure? A data structure is a way of organizing data that considers not only the items stored, but also their relationship to each other. Advance knowledge about the relationship between data items allows designing of efficient algorithms for the manipulation of data. 2. List out the areas in which data structures are applied extensively? Compiler Design, Operating System, Database Management System, Statistical analysis package, Numerical Analysis, Graphics, Artificial Intelligence, Simulation 3. What are the major data structures used in the following areas : RDBMS, Network data model & Hierarchical data model. RDBMS – Array (i.e. Array of structures) Network data model – Graph Hierarchical data model – Trees 4. If you are using C language to implement the heterogeneous linked list, what pointer type will you use? The heterogeneous linked list contains different data types in its nodes and we need a link, pointer to connect them. It is not possible to use ordinary pointers for this. So we go for void pointer. Void pointer is capable of storing pointer to any type as it is a generic pointer type. 5. Minimum number of queues needed to implement the priority queue? Two. One queue is used for actual storing of data and another for storing priorities. 6. What is the data structures used to perform recursion? Every recursive function has its equivalent iterative (non-recursive) function. Even when such equivalent iterative procedures are written, explicit stack is to be used. Stack. Because of its LIFO (Last In First Out) property it remembers its ‘caller’ so knows whom to return when the function has to return. Recursion makes use of system stack for storing the return addresses of the function calls. General - other C-Dac Sample quesion paper - pattern 2|C-DAC Latest Placement papers and answers| C-DAC Project Engineers Recruitment questions|C-DAC Technical and HR Interview Questions C-DAC Programmin Concepts 1The ability to reuse objects already defined, perhaps for a different purpose, with modification appropriate to the new purpose, is referred to as Information hiding Inheritance Redefinition Overloading 2. The term given to the process of hiding all the details of an object that do not contribute to its essential characteristics is called _____________ data-hiding packaging encapsulation abstraction 3.Object Oriented Technology`s ______ feature means that a small change in user requirements should not require large changes to be made to the system Abstraction Modularity Encapsulation Modelling 4. An object has _____ State Behaviour Identity All of these options 5. Which of the following is true: Class is an object of an object Class is meta class Class cannot have zero instances None of these options 6. If a derived class object is explicitly destroyed by applying the delete operator to a base-class pointer to the object, the _____ function is automatically called on the object Derived-class destructor Base-class destructor Base-class constructor Derived-class constructor 7. In object orientated programming a class of objects can _____________ properties from another class of objects utilize borrow inherit adapt 8. Contracts are not meant to be used in cases of _______ Composition `has-a` relationship `is-a` relationship Both Composition and `has-a` relationship 9. Inheritance through interface is called ________ Implementation inheritance Definition inheritance Delegation inheritance Interface inheritance model 10. When a class uses dynamic memory, what member functions should be provided by the class? An overloaded assignment operator The copy constructor A destructor All of these options 11. ______ means that both the data and the methods which may access it are defined together in the same unit Data hiding Encapsulation Data Binding None of these options 12. The term given to the process of hiding all the details of an object that do not contribute to its essential characteristics is called _____________ data-hiding packaging encapsulation grouping 13. Car contains a steering wheel is example of ________ Composition Association Composition and Association None of these options 14. Can two classes contain member functions with the same name? No Yes, but only if the two classes have the same name Yes, but only if the main program does not declare both kinds Yes, this is always allowed 15. A contract is implemented through Class Interface Abstract Class Interface and Abstract Class English Language Ability Directions:- The given pair of words contains a specific relationship to each other. Select the best pair of choices which expresses the same relationship as the given 16. IGNOMINY : DISLOYALTY :: fame : heroism death : victory derelict : fool martyr : man 17. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS :: flood : water famine : food fire : ashes disease : germ 18. Bland : Piquant :: inane : relevant charlatan : genuine slavish : servile terse : serious 19. NEGLIGENT : REQUIREMENT:: remiss : duty cogent :argument easy : hard careful : position Directions:- Choose the best word, which is most opposite in the meaning to the given word 20. FETTER : delay stretch comply thrive 21. SEDULOUS : rampant esoteric morose indolent 22. SUCCULENT : ordinary tasteless inexpensive invigorating 23. DORMANT : authoritative elastic active uninteresting 24. COURT : reject uncover infect subject Directions:- The given pair of words contains a specific relationship to each other. Select the best pair of choices which expresses the same relationship as the given 25. INTIMIDATE : FEAR :: Maintain : satisfaction Astonish : wonder Soothe : concern Lion : tame Directions:- Pick out the best choice which can complete the incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully 26. It was an extremely pleasant surprise for the hutment-dweller when the Government officials told him that__________ he had to vacate hutment which he had been unauthorized occupying he had been gifted with a furnished apartment in a multistoried building he would be arrested for wrongly encroaching on the pavement outside his dwelling they would not accede to his request 27. In the closing days of the civil War, President Abraham Lincoln was planning to graciously welcome the defeated confederate states back into the Union. After Lincoln was assassinated, however, the "Radical Republicans" in Congress imposed martial law in the South, creating resentment that caused problems well into this century. Had Lincoln lived, the history of regional conflict in 20th century America would have been considerably different. All of the following assumptions underline the argument above EXCEPT The imposition of martial law in the South was primarily responsible for the resentment felt in the South Had he lived, lincoln would have treated hte defeated South as he had planned Lincoln would have been able to prevent the Radical Republicans in Congress from imposing martial law in the South Factors other than the imposition of martial law in the South affected the history of regional conflicts in 20th century America 28. A politician wrote the following: "I realize there are shortcomings to the questionaire method. However, since I send a copy of the quetionnaire to every home in the district, I believe the results are quite representative.... I think the numbers received are so large that it is quite accurate even though the survey is not done scientifically" Most people who received the questionnaire have replied Most people in the district live in homes. the questionnaire method of data collection is unscientific A large, absolute number of replies is synonymous with accuracy 29. A worldwide ban on the production of certain ozone-destroying chemicals would provide only an illusion of protection. Quantities of such chemicals, already produced, exist as coolants in millions of refrigerators. When they reach the ozone layer in the atmosphere, their action cannot be halted. So there is no way to prevent these chemicals from damaging the ozone layer further. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? It is impossible to measure with accuracy the quantity of ozone-destroying chemicals that exist as coolants in refrigerators. In modern societies, refrigeration of food is necessary to prevent unhealthy and potentially life-threatening conditions. Even if people should give up the use of refrigerators, the coolants already in existing refrigerators are a threat to atmospheric ozone. The coolants in refrigerators can be fully recovered at the end of the useful life of the refrigerators and reused 30. Every town with a pool hall has its share of unsavory characters.This is because the pool hall attracts gamblers and all gamblers are unsavory. Which of the following, if true cannot be inferred from the above? All gamblers are unsavory All pool halls attract gamblers Every town has unsavory characters All gamblers are attracted by pool halls Directions:- The workweek in a small business is a five-day workweek running from Monday through Friday. In each workweek, activities L,M,N,O and P must all be done.The work is subject to the following restrictions: L must be done earlier in the week than O and earlier than P M must be done earlier in the week than N and earlier than O No more than one of the activities can ever be done on any one day 31. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule starting from Monday to Friday? L, M, N, O, P<-------------ans M, N, O, N, M O, N, L, P, M P, O, L, M, L 32. In a game, exactly six inverted cups stand side by side in a straight line, and each has exactly one ball hidden under it. The cups are numbered consecutively 1 through 6. Each of the balls is painted a single solid color. The colors of the balls are green, magenta, orange, purple, red, and yellow. The balls have been hidden under the cups in a manner that conforms to the following conditions: The purple ball must be hidden under a lower-numbered cup than the orange ball. The red ball must be hidden under a cup immediately adjacent to the cup under which the magenta ball is hidden. The green ball must be hidden under cup 5. Which of the following could be the colors of the balls under the cups,in order from 1 through 6? Green, yellow, magenta, red, purple, orange Magenta, green, purple, red, orange, yellow Magenta, red, purple, yellow, green, orange<-ans Orange, yellow, red, magenta, green, purple Directions:- In a group there are five students coded as P Q R S T.Qand R are intelligent in mathematics and geology. P and R are intelligent in mathematics and hindi. Q and S are intelligent in psychology and buddhist studies. T is intelligent in buddhist studies hindi and psychology 33. who is intelligent in psychology, geology and buddhist studies Q <-------------ans T R S Directions:- The following questions are based on the following situations.Asha, Babli, Charn, Deepti, Eira, Farha are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age ,but all have birth days on the same date in that year. The youngest is 17 years old and the oldest is Eira is 22.Farha is somewhere between Babli and Deepti in age.Asha is older than Babli. Charn is older than Deepti 34. If asha is one year older than charn the number of logically possible orderins of all six cousins by increasing age is 2 <-ans(Babli,Asha, Farha, Charn, Deepti,Eira ) 3 4 5 35. It is easier to swim in the sea water than in river water because sea is vast mass of water sea water is generally calm the density of sea water is higher than river water<---------ans they water of sea is cool and greenish 36. starting from a point x jayant walked 15metres towards the west he turned to his left and walked 20 metres he then turned to his left and walked 15 metres he then further turned to his right and walked 12 metres how far is jayant from the point x and in which direction? 32 metres south 47 metres east 42 metres north 27 metres south <-------------ans 37. Rock and roll music started in the 1950s as a young mans medium and rock is still best performed by men in their twenties and thirties. As rock performers grow into their forties and even fifties, they are simply less physically capable of producing the kind of exciting music they did when they were younger. All of the following assumptions underline the argument above EXCEPT: As rock performers mature, their performances tend to become less exciting Rock music is dominated by male performers Women performers have always played a significant role in rock music The physical demands of performing rock are better met by the young <-------------ans Mathematical Problems 38. Which of the following statements are true, if x + y + z = 10 y >= 5 and 4 >= z >= 3 1. x < z 2. x > y 3. x + z <= y 1 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only <-------------ans 39. The solution of the equation 4 - 5(2y + 4) = 4 is -2/5 8 4 -2 <-------------ans 40. When x5 + 1 is divided by (x - 2), the remainder is 15 17 31 33 41. How many terms of the series -9 , -6 , -3 ,.........must be taken such that the sum may be 66? 11 13 9 <------------- ans10 42. The side of a rectangle are whole numbers. What must their lengths be for the perimeter for the rectangle to be numerically equal to its area? 3 and 6 4 and 5 4 and 6 5 and 5 43. A path 7 metres wide surrounds a circular lawn whose diameter is 252m.What is the area of path? 5698 sq.mtrs. 5000 sq.mtrs. 5500 sq.mtrs. None of these 44. If the negative of the sum of two consecutive odd numbers is less than -35, which of the following may be one of the numbers? 18 <-------------ans 16 15 13 45. What is the perimeter of a rectangle that is twice as long as it is wide and has the same area as a circle of diameter 8? 8(P)1/2 8P 12(2P)1/2 12P 46. Towns A and C are connected by a straight highway which is 60 miles long. The straight line distance between town A and town B is 50 miles, and the straight line distance from town B to town C is 50 miles. How many miles is it from town B to the point on the highway connecting town A and C which is closest to town B? 30 40 50 60 48. A batsman played 17 innings during a season and he was not out. The score of 85 improves his average by 3 runs in the 17th innings. His average score after 16th innings is 37 35 34 36 49. If paper costs 1 paisa per sheet, and a buyer gets a 2% discount on all the paper he buys after the first 1000 sheets, how much will it costs to buy 5000 sheets of paper? Rs 49.30 Rs 50.00 Rs 39.20 Rs 49.20 50. The income of a broker remains unchanged though the rate of commission is increased from 4% to 5%. The percentage of slump in business is 8% 1% 20% 80% 51. There are 4 quarts in a gallon. A gallon of motor oil sells for Rs.12 and a quart of the same oil sells for Rs.5. The owner of a rental agency has 6 machines and each machine needs 5 quarts of oil. What is the minimum amount of money she must spend to purchase enough oil ? Rs.84 Rs.94 Rs.96 Rs.102 52. A truck departed from Newton at 11:53a.m. and arrived in Far City,240 miles away, at 4:41 p.m. on the same day. What was the approximate average speed of the truck on this trip? 16/1,200 MPH 40/288 MPH 1,494/240 MPH 50 MPH 53. A girl rode her bicycle from home to school, a distance of 15 miles, at an average speed of 15 miles per hour. She returned home from school by walking at an average speed of 5 miles per hour. What was her average speed for the round trip if she took the same route in both directions? 7.5 miles per hour 10 miles per hour 12.5 miles per hour 13 miles per hour 54. A is thrice as good a workman as B. If the time taken by B to do piece of works exceeds that taken by A by 8 days. In how many days A does the work. 8 4 12 10 55. The population of a town was 54,000 in the last census. It has increased 2/3 since then. Its present population is 18,000 36,000 72,000 90,000 56. One hundred job applicants show up in response to a classified ad.If 60 percent of them are female and if 3/4 of the female applicants are willing to relocate if the job demands it, how many are not willing to relocate? 55 45 15 It cannot be determined from the information given 57. Mr. Smith drove at an average speed of 50mph for the first two hours of his trip. For the next three hours, he averaged 20 mph. What was Mr. Smith`s average speed for the five-hour trip ? 20 mph 32 mph 35 mph 38 mph 58. A postal truck leaves its station and heads for Chicago, averaging 40mph. An error in the mailing schedule is spotted and 24 minutes after the truck leaves, a car is sent to overtake the truck. If the car averages 50mph, how long will it take to catch the postal truck? 1.6 hours 3 hours 2 hours 1.5 hours 59. The length breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 :3. The length, breadth and height of the cuboid are increased by 100%, 200% and 200% respectively. Then the increase in the volume of the cuboid is 5 times 6 times 12 times 17 times 60. An Automobile covers the distance between two cities at a speed of 60km. per hour and on the return journey it covers at a speed of 40 km. per hour. Find the average speed. 60 50 48 55 61. A man buys 200 shares (par value of Rs.10) of a company, which pays 12% per annum as dividend, at such a price he gets 15% on his money. Find the market value(app.) of a share. Rs. 9 Rs. 12 Rs. 8 Rs. 7.50 62. An old picture has dimensions 33 inches by 24 inches. What one length must be cut from each dimension so that the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side is 2:3? 2 inches 6 inches 9 inches 10 1/2 inches 63. Hiralal earned a profit of Rs. 300 by selling 100 kg of mixture of A and B types of rice at a total price of Rs. 1100. What was the proportion of A and B types of rice in the mixture if the cost prices of A and B types of rice are Rs. 10 and Rs. 5 per kg respectively ? 3 : 2 2 : 5 2 : 773 5 : 2 64. A fraction has a value of 2/5. If the numerator is decreased by 2 and the denominator increased by 1, then the resulting fraction is 1/4.What is the value of the numerator of the original fraction ? 5 6 7 8 General - other CDAC PAPER ON 13 JULY,2008 APTITUDE (20 QUESTIONS) 1.questIons on coding&decoding 2.question on series (the questions were not striking at glance) 3.there were questions like,an expression is given 4+5*9/3*27=9(say),which two signs should be interchanged so that the expression evaluates to be 13(say). 4. Problem on mixture, like a shopkeeper earns a profit of 10% on selling a product ‘C’at Rs 22/kg. C is mixture of A&B. if A’s cost is Rs14/kg, then find B’s. 5.there two numbers. If the bigger one is multiplied by 3 then divided b the smaller one the remainder "ient comes out to be r1&q1.if the smaller one is first is multiplied by 5&then divided by bigger one the remainder "ient are r2,q2.find the bigger number. The numerical values of r1,q1,r2&q2 were given. BOOK - R.S .AGGARWAL C LANGUAGE(40 QUESTIONS) 1.good quality questions that tests theory of “c”. 2.good number of problems that involves pointers & strings. 3. few questions on function calling, conditional operators, hierarchy of logical AND& logical OR. The quality of questions was extremely good. BOOK-EXPLORING ‘C’ DIGITAL ELECRONICS(40 QUESTIONS) 1.extremely good questions on coding, the term “excess code” appeared a number of times,there was also good question on basic term radix. e.g which coding is best suitable for complement operation. 2.what is the minimum no.NAND gates that are required to implement a given Boolean expression? 3.treatment of logic gates wih high or low enable inputs, there was a term “floaing point “ that appeared in context with o/p of logic gates.. 4. simple questions from combinational &sequential circuits. 5. performance parameters of various digtal logic families (all sorts of TTL,ECL,IIL,MOS,CMOS). 6.few basic questions from microprocessor that involves the topics interrupt, interrupt handling , addressing modes. BOOK-DIGITAL ELECTRONICS BY MORRIS MANO CDAC Question Paper\ CDAC Previous Year Placement paper C-DAC C-CAT computer fundamentals data structures model questions for practice C-DAC,C-CAT practice question papers,C-DAC,C-CAT computer questions with answer 1 Which of the following holds the ROM, RAM, CPU? Hard Disk ALU Mother Board None of the above .Answer : C 2 Magnetic Tape used _________ access method. Random Sequential Direct None of the above .Answer : B 3 What is the difference between Memory and Storage? Memory is Temporary and Storage is Permanent Memory is Permanent and Storage is Temporary Memory is Slow and Storage is Fast None of the above Answer : A 4 The Language that the computer can understand is called _______. High Level Language Machine Language System Program Assembaly Language Answer : B 5 CPU stands for? Common Processing Unit Central Process Unit Central Processing Unit Central Performance Unit Answer : C 7 ALU stands for? Arithmetic Logic Unit Arithmetic Logical Unit Arithmetic Logic Uniform None of the above Answer : A 8 MODEM stands for? Multicomputer Operating Device Memory Modulator Demodulator Mega Storage Devide None of the above .Answer : B 9 CPU controls ___________. All Input, Output and processing Controls Memory Controlled by the input data None of the above .Answer : A 10 Which of the following is not hardware? Printer Monitor Magnetic Tape MS Word Answer : D 11 Memories which can be read only are called ____________ memories. RAM ROM EERAM Dynamic Memories Answer : B 12 What is the radix of Binary Number System? 3 1 2 4 Answer : C 13 What is the radix of Octal Number System? 18 8 7 2 Answer : B 14 The Decimal Number system has base __________. 8 9 11 None of the above .Answer : D 15 The Hexadecimal Number system has base __________. A F 16 10 Answer : C 16 BCD stands for ___________. Basic Computer Digit Binary Converted Decimal Binary Coded Decimal None of the above Answer : C 17 Octal number system contains digits from __________. 0 - 8 0 - 7 1 - 8 1 - 9 Answer : B 18 Decimal number system contains digits from __________. 1 - 10 0 - 10 0 - 8 0 - 9 Answer : D 19 Portable program means? Program with wheels Independent from its authors Independent of platform None of the above Answer : C 20 The number of 1's present in the binary representation of 10 x 256 + 5 x 16 + 5 is 5 6 7 8 Answer : B 21 The scheme of which interpreter translates the source program is known as Paragraph by paragraph Instruction by instruction Line by line None of the above Answer : B 22 The principal electronic payment systems for electronic commerce is __________. Credit Card Digital Wallet Electronic Cheque All of the above Answer : D 23 What is the first stage in program development? Specification and design System Analysis Testing None of the above Answer : A 24 Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities? Communication, planning, modelling, construction, deployment Communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing Analysis, designing, programming, Debugging, maintenance Analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing . 25 The hexadecimal number system consists of the following symbols __________. 0 - 7 0 - 9 0 - 9, A - F None of the above .Answer : C 25 DNS in internet technology stands for Dynamic Name System Domain Name System Distributed Name System None of the above .Answer : B 26 HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language Hyper Text Manipulation Language Hyper Text Managing Links Hyper Text Manipulating Links .Answer : A 27 GB is equal to ______. 230 bits 230 bytes 220 bits 220 bytes .Answer : B 28 The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a computer is called Compiler system Operation system Operating system None of the above .Answer : C 29 S/MIME in Internet technology stands for? Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension .Answer : A 30 Which one of the following is an example of Operating System ? Microsoft Word Microsoft Excel Microsoft Access Microsoft Windows .Answer : D 31 Which one of the following represent the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23? 01011 10111 10011 None of the above .Answer : B 32 Which one of the following is different from other members? Google Windows Linux Mac Answer : A 33 Computers on an internet are identified by E-mail address Street address IP address All of the above .Answer : C 34 What is blog? Online Music Intranet A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal A personal or corporate Google Search .Answer : C 35 Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website? www.jeevansathi.com www.shaadi.com www.bharatmatrimony.com www.u.k.singlemuslim.com .Answer : D 36 Bit stands for Binary Information Term Binary Digit Binary Tree Bivariate Theory Answer : B 37 Which one of the following is not a network device? Router Switch Hub CPU Answer : D 38 A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be executed High-level language Low-level language Assembly language Natural language Answer : A 39 How many 1's are present in the binary representation of 3 x 512 + 7 x 64 + 5 x 8 + 3 8 9 10 11 Answer : B 40 The Unix command used to find out the number of characters in a file is nc wc chcnt lc Answer : B 41 In a client/server model, a client program ___. Asks for information Provides information and files Serves software files to other computers Distributes data files to other computers .Answer : A 42 Every device on the Internet has a unique ___________ address (also called an "Internet address"). DH IPVPP DTH IP Answer : D 43 PERT stands for? Program Evaluation and Review Technique Permission Evaluation and Review Technique Project Evaluation and Review Technique A & C Both .Answer : D 44 ______ is the high speed memory used in the computer. RAM BIOS Hard disk Cache .Answer : D 45 SWOT analysis stands for? Strength Weakness Opportunity and Threat Stamina Will Obesity Threat Subtle Will Opportunity Threat None of the above Answer : A 46 The set of processed data is called? Data Data Processing Database Information Answer:D . 47 BPO Means? Business Process Outsourcing Business Process Office Business Process Output Business Program Output .Answer : A 48 Which of the following is object oriented programming? C C++ BASIC FORTRAN .Answer : B 49 gif is expanded as? Graphics Interchange File Graphics Interchange Format Graphics Information File Graphics Information Format .Answer : B 50 AVI format was developed by? IBM Apple Microsoft Macromedia .Answer : C Technical - C & C++- C-Dac Sample quesion paper - pattern 1 Fundamentals of Programming 1.The programming language that was designed for specifying algorithm Address ASCII ALGOL None of these options 2. _____ contains the addresses of all the records according to the contents of the field designed as the record key. Index<------ans Subscript Array File 3. _________ symbol is used for Processing of data. Oval Parallelogram<------ans Rectangle Diamond 4. __________ is the analysis tool used for planning program logic Protocol None of these options PROLOG Pseudocode 5. Machine language has two part format the first part is__________ and the second part is __________ OPCODE,OPERAND<------ans OPERAND,OPCODE DATA CODE,OPERAND OPERAND,CODEOP 6. Language Primarily used for internet-based applications ADA C++ JAVA;------ans FORTRAN 7. _________ is a point at which the debugger stops during program execution and awaits a further command. Memory Dump Watch point<------ans Break point None of these options 8. ________do not contain any program logic and are ignored by the language Processor Protocol Virus Comment None of these options 9. The component of data base management system is ________ Data definition Language Data manipulation Language Data definition Language and Data manipulation Language None of these options 10. The quality of Algorithm is judged on the basis of_________ Time requirement Memory Requirement Accuracy of solution All of these options<------ans 11. Advantages of using flow charts is Effective Analysis Efficient Coding Time consuming Effective Analysis and Efficient Coding<-----ans Programming in C 12. The Real constants in C can be expressed in which of the following forms Fractional form only Exponential form only ASCII form only Both Fractional and Exponential forms<------ans 13. The program, which translates high-level program into its equivalent machine language program, is called Transformer Language processor Converter None of these options<------ans<!--[if !supportEmptyParas]--> 14. Consider the following statements. i.Multiplication associates left to right ii.Division associates left to right iii.Unary Minus associates right to left iv.subtraction associates left to right All are true <------ans only i and ii are true all are false only iii and iv are true 15. What will be the value of variable a in the following code? unsigned char a; a = 0xFF + 1; printf("%d", a); 0xFF 0x100 0 <------ans 0x0 16. What is the output of the following program? #include <stdio.h> void main() { printf("\n10!=9 : %5d",10!=9); } 1<------ans 0 Error None of these options 17. #include<stdio.h> void main() { int x=10; (x<0)?(int a =100):(int a =1000); printf(" %d",a); } Error<------ans 1000 100 None of these options 18. Which of the following shows the correct hierarchy of arithmetic operations in C (), **, * or /, + or - (), **, *, /, +, - (), **, /, *, +, - (), / or *, - or + <-----Ans 19. What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void main() { int a=14; a += 7; a -= 5; a *= 7; printf("\n%d",a); } 112<------ans 98 89 None of these options 20. What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> #define T t void main() { char T = `T`; printf("\n%c\t%c\n",T,t); } Error T t T T t t 21. The statement that prints out the character set from A-Z, is for( a = `z`; a < `a`; a = a - 1) printf("%c", &a); for( a = `a`; a <= `z`; a = a + 1 printf("%c", &a); for( a = `A`; a <= `Z`; a = a + 1)<----Ans printf("%c", a); for( a = `Z`; a <= `A`; a = a + 1) printf("%c", a); 22. The statement which prints out the values 1 to 10 on separate lines, is for( count = 1; count <= 10; count = count + 1) printf("%d\n",count); for( count = 1; count < 10; count = count + 1) printf("%d\n",count);<------ans for( count = 0; count <= 9; count = count + 1) printf("%d ",count); for( count = 1; count <> 10; count = count + 1) printf("%d\n",count); 23. What does the term `call-by-reference` refer to? Passing a copy of a variable into a function. Passing a pointer to a variable into a function. <------ans Choosing a random value for a variable. A function that does not return any values. 24. What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void swap(int&, int&); void main() { int a = 10,b=20; swap (a++,b++); printf("\n%d\t%d\t",a, b); } void swap(int& x, int& y) { x+=2; y+=3; } 14, 24 11, 21 <------ans 10, 20 Error 25. What is the output of the following program code #include<stdio.h> void abc(int a[]) { a++; a[1]=612; } main() { char a[5]; abc(a); printf("%d",a[4]); } 100 612 Error<------ans None of these options 26. which of the following is true about recursive function i. it is also called circular definition ii. it occurs when a function calls another function more than once iii. it occurs when a statement within the function calls the function itself iv. a recursive function cannot have a return statement within it" i and iii<------ans i and ii ii and iv i, iii and iv 27.What will happen if you assign a value to an element of an array whose subscript exceeds the size of the array? The element will be set to 0 Nothing, its done all the time Other data may be overwritten Error message from the compiler 28. What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void main() { int arr[2][3][2]={{{2,4},{7,8},{3,4},}, {{2,2},{2,3},{3,4}, }}; printf("\n%d",**(*arr+1)+2+7); } 16 <------ans 7 11 Error 29. If int s[5] is a one dimensional array of integers, which of the following refers to the third element in the array? *( s + 2 ) <------ans *( s + 3 ) s + 3 s + 2 30. #include"stdio.h" main() { int *p1,i=25; void *p2; p1=&i; p2=&i; p1=p2; p2=p1; printf("%d",i); } The output of the above code is : Program will not compile <------ans 25 Garbage value Address of I 31. What is the output of the following code? void main() { int i = 100, j = 200; const int *p=&i; p = &j; printf("%d",*p); } 100 200 <------ans 300 None of the above 32. void main() { int i=3; int *j=&i; clrscr(); printf("%d%d",++*j,*(&i)); } What is the output of this program? 3 3 4 3 <------ans 4,address of i printed Error:Lvalue required 33. What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void main() { int arr[] = {10,20,30,40,50}; int *ptr = arr; printf("\n %d\t%d\t",*ptr++,*ptr); } 10 20 10 10<------ans 20 20 20 10 34. Which of these are reasons for using pointers? 1.To manipulate parts of an array 2.To refer to keywords such as for and if 3.To return more than one value from a function 4.To refer to particular programs more conveniently 1 & 3 <------ans Only 1 Only 3 All of the above 35. struct num { int no; char name[25]; }; void main() { struct num n1[]={{25,"rose"},{20,"gulmohar"}, {8,"geranium"},{11,"dahalia"}}; printf("%d%d" ,n1[2].no,(*&n1+2)->no+1); } What is the output of this program? 8 8 8 9 <------ans 9 8 8 , unpredictable 36. During initializing a union Only one member can be initialised. All the members will be initialised. Initialisation of a union is not possible.<------ans None of these options 37. Self referential structure is one a. Consisting the structure in the parent structure b. Consisting the pointer of the structure in the parent structure Only a Only b Both a and b Neither a nor b 38. Individual structure member can be initialized in the structure itself True False Compiler dependent None of these options 39. Which of the following is the feature of stack? All operations are at one end It cannot reuse its memory All elements are of different data types Any element can be accessed from it directly<------ans 40. When stacks are created Are initially empty<------ans Are initialized to zero Are considered full None of these options 41. What is time required to insert an element in a stack with linked implementation? (1) (log2n)<------ans (n) (n log2n) 42. Which of the following is the feature of stack? All operations are at one end It cannot reuse its memory All elements are of different data types Any element can be accessed from it directly<------ans 43. Time taken for addition of element in queue is (1) (n) (log n)<------ans None of these options 44. When is linear queue said to be empty ? Front==rear Front=rear-1 Front=rear+1 Front=rear<------ans 45. When queues are created Are initially empty<------ans Are initialized to zero Are considered full None of the above 46. What would be the output of the following program? #include <stdio.h> main() { printf("\n%c", "abcdefgh"[4]); } abcdefgh d e <------ans error 47. Select the correct C code which will read a line of characters(terminated by a \n) from input_file into a character array called buffer. NULL terminate the buffer upon reading a \n. int ch, loop = 0; ch = fgetc( input_file ); while( (ch != `\n`)&& (ch != EOF) ){buffer[loop] = ch; loop++; ch = fgetc(input_file );} buffer[loop] = NULL; int ch, loop = 0; ch = fgetc( input_file ); while( (ch = "\n")&& (ch = EOF)) { buffer[loop] = ch; loop--; ch = fgetc(]input_file ); } buffer[loop]= NULL; int ch, loop = 0; ch = fgetc( input_file ); while( (ch <> "\n")&& (ch != EOF) ) { buffer[loop] = ch; loop++; ch = fgetc(input_file ); } buffer[loop] = -1; None of the above 48. What is the output of the following code ? void main() { int a=0; int b=0; ++a == 0 || ++b == 11; printf("\n%d,%d",a,b); } 0, 1 1, 1 <------ans 0, 0 1, 0 49. What is the output of the following program? #define str(x)#x #define Xstr(x)str(x) #define oper multiply void main() { char *opername=Xstr(oper); printf("%s",opername); } opername Xstr multiply <------ans Xstr 50. What is the output of the following code ? #include<stdio.h> #include<string.h> void main() { char *a = "C-DAC\0\0ACTS\0\n"; printf("%s\n",a); } C-DAC ACTS ACTS C-DAC <------ans None of these 51. #include<stdio.h> void main() { while (1) {if (printf("%d",printf("%d"))) break; else continue; } } The output is Compile time error Goes into an infinite loop Garbage values <------ans None of these options 52. Select the correct C statements which tests to see if input_file has opened the data file successfully.If not, print an error message and exit the program. if( input_file == NULL ) { printf("Unable to open file.\n");exit(1); } if( input_file != NULL ) { printf("Unable to open file.\n");exit(1); } while( input_file = NULL ) { printf("Unable to open file.\n");exit(1);} None of these options 53.The code int i = 7; printf("%d\n", i++ * i++); prints 49 prints 56 <------ans is compiler dependent expression i++ * i++ is undefined 54. Recursive procedure are implemented by Linear list Queue Tree Stack<------ans 55. Which of these are reasons for using pointers? 1. To manipulate parts of an array 2. To refer to keywords such as for and if 3. To return more than one value from a function 4. To refer to particular programs more conveniently 1 & 3<------ans only 1 only 3 None of these options 56. The expression x = 4 + 2 % -8 evaluates to -6 6 4 None of these options 57. What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> main() { register int a=2; printf("\nAddress of a = %d,", &a); printf("\tValue of a = %d",a); Address of a,2 <------ans Linker error Compile time error None of these options 58. What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void main() { int arr[]={0,1,2,3,4,5,6}; int i,*ptr; for(ptr=arr+4,i =0; i<=4; i++) printf("\n%d",ptr[-i]);(as the 0=4,for -1 it becomes =3) } Error 6 5 4 3 2 0 garbage garbage garbage garbage 4 3 2 1 0 <------ans 59. Which of the following is the correct way of declaring a float pointer: float ptr; float *ptr; <------ans *float ptr; None of the above 60.If the following program (newprog) is run from the command line as:newprog 1 2 3 What would be the output of the following? void main (int argc, char*argv[]) { int I,j=0; for (I=0;I<argc;I++) j=j + atoi(argv[I]); printf("%d",j); } 123 6 123 Compilation error<------ans Technical - Other C-DAC Select the Best Choice(s): 1. A set of rules, which enable orderly exchange of information between two devices. a) Topology b) Protocol c) Transmission Media d) None of the above 2. ISO stands for a) International Standards Organization b) International Organization for Standardization c) Both of above d) None of above 3. Proposal for a new Internet standard is called a) RFC b) Internet draft c) Draft Standard d) Proposed Standard 4. The data sent between layers is called a) Protocol Data Unit b) Datagram c) Service Data Unit d) Packet 5.The Private Automatic Branch Exchange is an example of a) Bus Topology b) Ring Topology c) Tree Topology d) Star Topology 6. Topology, which connects every single node in the network to every other node, is a) Star b) Ring c) Mesh d) Bus 7. Which of the following is not a hybrid topology a) Tree b) String c) Bus d) None of the above 8. The term 10Base2 indicates a network a) 10 mbps speed, Base Band Signaling, 200 meters segment length b) 10 mbps speed, Base Band Signaling, 200 meters maximum length c) 10 mbps speed, Base Band Signaling, 185 meters segment length d) None of the above 9. Coaxial cable, UTP cable, STP cable and fibre cables are popular network media today. Order these in increasing order of data security a) Coaxial, UTP, STP, Fibre b) UTP, Coaxial, STP, Fibre c) UTP, STP, Coaxial, Fibre d) None of the above 10. Bridges are simple devices that are used to connect LANs of a) Different Architecture (eg. Ethernet to Token Ring) b) Same architecture (eg. Ethernet to Ethernet) c) Architecture does not matter e) None of the above 11. Which application uses existing CSMA/VD over existing twisted-pair cable with bandwidths of 100 mbps? a) 10BaseF b) 100BaseX c) 100VG-AnyLAN d) 10BaseFD 12. What model divides the network communication process into seven layers? a) Layered Model b) TCP/IP c) OSI d) X.25 13. B-ISDN uses fiber as a transmission medium and _______ as the switching infrastructure a) Ethernet b) FDDI c) ATM d) None of the above 14. ______ is the only standards based technology that has been designed from the beginning to accommodate the simultaneous transmission of voice, video and data a) Home cable network b) Satellite TV c) ATM d) All of the above 15. Which of the following common LAN protocols extend to OSI network layer. a) NetBIOS b) NetBEUI c) TCP/IP d) All of the above 16. Portability standards are discussed widely in four areas, which of the following is not one of them. a) Operating Systems b) Data Management c) Programming Languages d) Hardware 17. Which of the following is not an essential feature of Data Link Layer protocols as defined by ISO/OSI model a) Message orientation b) Error Detection c) Error correction by re-transmission d) None of the above 18. Which of the following describes the OSI Class 3 transport (TP3) a) Do nothing b) Signaled Error Recovery c) Multiplexing d) Signalled error recovery and multiplexing 19. The issue of chekpointing and synchronization is handled by which layer a) Session Layer b) Transport Layer c) Pressentation layer d) Application Layer 20. In the OSI model, the responsibility for negotiating the encodings to be used in any perticular connection is entrusted upon a) Application Layer b) Session Layer c) Presentation Layer d) None of the above 21. TCP/IP is built on _________ technology a) Connection oriented b) Connection less c) Datagram d) Ethernet 22.IP addresses are ____ bit long a) 4 b) 64 c) 48 d) 32 23. Which of the following is not a network operating system a) Windows for Workgroup over MSDOS b) Novell Netware c) Windows 95 d) None of the above 24. Fiber optic token ring networks operate at the speed of a) 16 mbps b) 100 mbps c) 1000 mbps d) 10 mbps 25. The Synchronous Optical Network is an ANSI standard. A similar standard established in Europe is a) Synchronous Digital Hierarchy b) SONET c) Switched Multi megabit Data Service d) Distributed Queue Duel Bus 26. In the TCP/IP protocol family ___________ provides reliable transport service. a) Transport Protocol b) Transport Layer c) TCP d)All of above 27. IP address is a ___________ address. a) Network Layer Address b) Layer 2 address c) Hardware Address d) None of above 28. An IP address when logically ANDed with netmask, the result is _________________. a) Host Address b) Network Address c) Broadcast Address d) None of the above 29. Remote boot uses _______ protocol to discover IP address of diskless machine. a) ICMP b) SNMP c) ARP d) RARP 30. Once a datagram is fragmented in a IP network it is reassembled only at ____________. a) Next hope b) Next Router c) Final Destination d) Never 31. The source quench _________ message is used to control the rate at which datagrams are transmitted. a) IP b) ICMP c) SNMP d) TCP 32. TCP establishes an end to end _______________ between the sender and receiver. a) Connection b) Virtual Circuit c) Path d) None of above 33. UDP is used with ___________________ Protocol. a) Trivial File Transfer b) ICMP c) LDAP d) All of above 34. IP is a ___________ protocol a) Routing Protocol b) Routed Protocol c) Both of above d) None of above 35. ______ is a complex data structure that contains details about a connection a) Socket b) Port c) TCB d) None of above 36. The bind socket call is used to __________________________ a) Bind a local application to a remote application b) Bind a socket to local port c) Bind a socket to a remote port d) Bind a local port to a remote port 37. Each SNMP managed object belongs to a ______________ a) Community b) Network c) Organization D) SNMP Group 38. RTCP is the ________________ protocol designed to work with RTP a) Application b) Control c) Network d) Transport 39. For block devices all I/O occurs through the _________________ a) Blocks b) Device c) Buffer cache d) None of above 40. _______ is a international standard file format for describing interactive 3D multimedia on the Internet. a) DHTML b) XML c) VRML d) None of above 41. ___________ is a distance-vector routing protocol a) RIP b) IGRP c) OSPF d) All of above 42. IPng provides security through Authentication Headers and the default encryption method is ________ a) SSL b) Public Key c) MD5 d) None of above 43. RTSP is a ___________ protocol similar to HTTP a) Network Layer b) Internet c) Application Layer d) None of above 44. OSPF features include __________________. a) Multi-Path routing b) Equal-cost c) Routing based on upper-layer TOS request d) All of above 45. IP address is assigned to a __________. a) Network b) Host c) Interface d) All of above 46. Token Ring network operate at a speed of a) 10 mbps b) 100 mbps c) 20 mbps d) 16 mbps 47. Ethernet is an access method that strictly adheres to the a) CSMA/CD b) Token Passing c) SPX/IPS d) TCP/IP 48. 100BASET4 operates at 100 mbps using base band signaling and the media is a) Two stands of fiber b) Two pairs of data grade UTP c) Four pairs of telephone grade UTP d) None of the above 49. Length of Ethernet address is a) 24 bit b) 12 bit c) 48 bit d) 32 bit 50. Frame Relay protocol is used for a) WAN b) LAN c) Token Ring networks d) None of the above 51. Distance of a Radio Link is limited by a) Line of site b) Capacity of the HUB device c) Both A and B d) None of the above 52. Basic Rate ISDN service provides a) 23B+1D Channels b) 2B+1D Channels c) 30B + 1D Channel d) None of the above 53. X.25 networks work at the maximum speed of a) 33.6 kbps b) 128 kbps c) 64 kbps d) 2.1 mbps 54. Unit for data at Transport layer is a) Segment b) Packet c) Frame d) Bits 55. A physical layer address of a node is a) Always fixed b) Changes if the NIC hardware is changed c) Assigned by the administrator of the node d) None of the above 56. Path determination occurs at a) Data Link Layer b) Session Layer c) Transport Layer d) Network Layer 57. One of the following is not a function of Transport Layer. a) Windowing b) Addressing c) Multiplexing d) Flow control 58. Network layer communicates path information using a) ICMP b) SNMP c) Some form of routing information protocol d) None of the above 59. Applications running on a single host are identified by service access points at Transport layer and Session layer interface. These SAPs are known as a) Ports b) Sockets c) Both A and B d) None of the above 60. Route poisoning technique is used to avoid a) Congestion problem b) Count to infinity problem c) Traffic shaping d) None of the above 61. The Transport Layer provide a) Best effort end to end packet delivery service b) Connection oriented end to end packet delivery service c) Connection oriented, reliable, end to end packet delivery service d) None of the above 62. Application data is converted in a form suitable for transmission on the network by a) Network Layer b) MAC Layer c) Session Layer d) Presentation Layer 63. Version 4 Internet Protocol uses a) 32 bit flat address scheme b) 32 bit hierarchical address scheme c) 64 bit address d) 128 bit address 64. Mapping between Internet Protocol address and MAC layer address are resolved using a) RARP b) RIP c) ARP d) TCP/IP 94. A host has an IP address of 192.168.6.209 and a net mask of 255.255.255.0. Which one of the following statements is true? a) The subnet number is 192.168.6.0, and the host number is 209. b) The subnet number is 192.168.6.192, and the host number is 17. c) The subnet number is 192.168.6.200, and the host number is 9. d) The subnet number is 192.168.6.208, and the host number is 1. 95. Which of the following protocols is used for network management and monitoring? a) X.500 b) SNMP c) SMTP d) X.400 96. Your network segment has a default gateway of 205.222.45.126 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. Which of the following is true? a) The valid range for hosts is 205.222.1.126 through 205.222.44.126 and all the hosts must use the same subnet mask. b) The valid range for hosts is 205.222.45.126 through 205.222.45.126 and all the hosts must increase the subnet mask by one. c) The valid range for hosts is 205.222.45.65 through 205.222.45.125 and all the hosts must use the same subnet mask. d) The valid range for hosts is 205.222.1.65 through 205.222.45.126 and all the hosts must use the same subnet mask. 97. When developers write TCP/IP software, they have two mechanisms for transporting data from applications: TCP and UDP. Why, in many cases, is UDP used as the protocol for communications? a) UDP has a smaller packet size, and thus can be sent around the network with more speed. b) TCP has no mechanism to support short, choppy bursts of data, which some applications tend to produce. c) UDP is never used for applications. It is simply a routing protocol. d) UDP provides reliable delivery acknowledgements, which many applications need for success. 98. In a token-passing network, what can each and every device on the network be described as behaving like? a) A proxy. b) A router. c) A bridge. d) Repeater 99. You have become increasingly concerned with the activity at the Logical Link Layer of the IPX/SPX stack on a certain workstation. What data form should you be concentrating on at this level? a) Frames b) Packets c) Datagrams d) Bits 100. TCP/IP Protocol Architecture was designed to carry data over the ARPANET. What type of network is the ARPANET? a) Message switching network. b) Packet switching network. c) Packet routing network. d) A hybrid of a packet and message routing network. 101. Your company has been assigned a Class B IP address. You are administrating a country-wide network with 45 individual subnets. Over the next year, you will be adding 60 subnets. What subnet mask should you use that will allow the most hosts per subnet? a) 255.255.252.0 b) 255.255.254.0 c) 255.0.0.0 d) 255.255.0.0 102. What layer of the OSI model handles such issues as file access and transfer and virtual terminal emulation? a) Application b) Network c) Transport d) Session 103. You have implemented RSA encryption technology on your network. It seems to be working well. However, one station always receives encrypted emails as garbled text, meaning the protocol stack is corrupted. What OSI layer above can be assumed to be faulty? a) Data Link Layer b) Presentation Layer c) Session Layer d) Transport Layer 104. What is the maximum segment length for 10Broad36? a) 85 meters b) 200 meters c) 36 meters d) 3600 meters 105. Which networking standard describes cabling requirements for Ethernet? a) 802.2 b) 802.3 c) 802.4 d) 802.5 106. You have been given the Class C address of 205.222.5.0. What size subnet mask will give you the greatest possible number of hosts? a) An 8-bit mask of 255.255.255.255 for 254 hosts. b) An 8-bit mask of 255.255.255.0 for 254 hosts. c) An 8-bit mask of 255.255.0.0 for 65,534 hosts. d) An 8-bit mask of 255.255.0.0 for 8190 hosts. 107. Describe a fully-meshed star network. a) A network with a central router that has a unique path to each end-point router and some of the end-point routers have links to one another. b) A network with a central router that feeds a number of smaller routers that in turn feed a number of end-point routers. c) A network with a central router that has a unique path to each end-point router. d) A network in which all the routers have unique paths to one another 108. Why is SNMP considered lacking in security? a) SNMP devices send messages about their failing conditions. b) The SNMP manager broadcasts sensitive information to the managed devices. c) The SNMP passwords are clear ASCII text. d) SNMP passwords cannot be changed. 109. Which one of the following statements correctly describes differences between a bridge and a layer two switch? a) A layer two switch is a high speed, multi-port bridge. b) A layer two switch cannot use the Spanning Tree Protocol to learn a network’s topology, while c) A layer two switch can support multiple network media types, such as twisted pair, fiber, and coax, while a bridge is limited to supporting a single network media type. d) A layer two switch is than an Ethernet hub that supports different speeds on different ports, while a bridge requires all ports to have the same speed. 110. How are packet forwarding decisions made in an OSI reference model layer three device? a) The device compares the destination MAC address to an internal table that associates MAC addresses to particular ports. b) In a layer three device, every packet is sent out of every port. c) In a layer three device, packets are forwarded based on node name. d) The device compares the destination network address to an internal table that associates network addresses to particular ports. 111.Which one of the following describes the IP address 192.4.2.4 a) A Class A address that is 32 bits in length b) A Class B address that is 16 bits in length c) A Class B address that is 32 bits in length d) A Class C address that is 32 bits in length 112. What is the main function of a router? a) Setting up communications between networks that use dissimilar IP segments but the same Subnet Masks b) Connecting logically separate network segments. c) Providing IP configuration to computers using DHCP d) Authenticating users to the network e) Connecting to the Internet. 113. Network cards in computers communicate with each other using unique MAC addresses, similar to street addresses. Where do these unique addresses come from? a) The network administrator makes up addresses to use and then programs them into the software. b) The manufacturer publishes a range of addresses in the manual that you choose from. c) The network card searches the network and then assigns itself a unique address from an elaborate algorithm using the alread-allocated addresses. d) The IEEE assigns every manufacturer a prefix and a block of address range, typically expressed in hexadecimala bridge can. Technical - Other C DAC PAPER ON 15th APRIL AT CHENNAI Hi i have attended CDAC exam of 15th april 2007 and the test comprises of 1. Aptitude 2. c/c++ 3. Java aptitude is nothing it will be very easy, jus from R.S Agarvall example 1.time and work problem 2.train problem 3.chain rule problem 4.ratios And in technical side it will be from c and c++? and im hosting some of the c and c++ question which i know 1.Find which one of the following is correct? a) !(p||q) !p || !q b) !!!p = !p c) p && q || r p && ( q || r ) d)nothing 2. find the output of the following program? main() { static i = 3; pringf("%d",i--) return i >0 ? main():0; } ans: a)333 b)321 c)111 d)error in the code 3.find the output of the following program? main() { charp[] = "%d\n"; p[1] = 'c'c; printf(p,65); } ans: a) 0 b) a c) A d) error in the code 4.which will return integer? a) int*s ( ) b) ( int* ) s( ) b) int ( *s ) ( ) 5.find the output of the following program? char*myfunc(char*ptr) { ptr +=3; return (ptr); } int main() { char*x,*y; x="HELLO"; y=myfunc(x); printf("y = %s\n",y); return 0; } ans: a) HELLO b) LLO c) LO d) L 6.find the output of the following program? main() { int i = _1_abc(10); printf("%d\n",--i); } { int_1_abc(int i) { return(++i); } ans: a)10 b)11 c)9 d)error 7.In order to force derived class A to redefine a function a fun, void foo( ) how should A declare foo( )? inline foo() virtual voidfoo( ) = 0 8. which operator cant be overloaded? ans: a) &; b) [ ] ; c) :: ; d) all the above; 8.If u allocate it as, int *ptr = new int [ 25]; How will u deallocate it ? ans: a) delete *pint; b) delete [ ] pint; c) delete pint [25]; d) all ; 9. which virtual ? a) constant; b) static function; c) return; d) none; 10. How many times "hello world" will be printed? void fun(int n) { int i; for (i = 0; i < = n; i ++) { fun(n-i); printf("hello world"); } } ans: a) infinite b)zero c)one d)n times BEST OF LUCK By, Murali Krisnan C-DAC Latest Technical Question Papers C-DAC Latest -2011-2012 Placement papers with answers|C-DAC Technical Questions,C,DBMS,Programming Questions C-DAC Aptitude Reasoning Questions Latest Selected Procedures|C-DAC Placement Anlysis C-DAC Latest Placement Papers 1.The programming language that was designed for specifying algorithm..... Address ASCII ALGOL None of these options 2. _____ contains the addresses of all the records according to the contents of the field designed as the record key.Index ans Subscript Array File 3. _________ symbol is used for Processing of data. Oval Parallelogram ans Rectangle Diamond 4. __________ is the analysis tool used for planning program logic Protocol None of these options PROLOG Pseudocode 5. Machine language has two part format the first part is__________ and the second part is __________ OPCODE,OPERAND ans OPERAND,OPCODE DATA CODE,OPERAND OPERAND,CODEOP 6. Language Primarily used for internet-based applications ADA C++ JAVA ans FORTRAN 7. _________ is a point at which the debugger stops during program execution and awaits a further command. Memory Dump Watch point ans Break point None of these options 8. ________do not contain any program logic and are ignored by the language Processor Protocol Virus Comment None of these 9. The component of data base management system is ________ Data definition Language Data manipulation Language Data definition Language Data manipulation Language None of these 10. The quality of Algorithm is judged on the basis of_________ Time requirement Memory Requirement Accuracy of solution All of these-ans 11. Advantages of using flow charts is Effective Analysis Efficient Coding Time consuming Effective Analysis Efficient Coding –ans Programming in C 12. The Real constants in C can be expressed in which of the following forms Fractional form only Exponential form only ASCII form only ans Both Fractional and Exponential forms 13. The program, which translates high-level program into its equivalent machine language program, is called Transformer Language processor Converter None of these options 14. Consider the following statements. i.Multiplication associates left to right ii.Division associates left to right iii.Unary Minus associates right to left iv.subtraction associates left to right All are true ans only i and ii are true all are false only iii and iv are true 15. What will be the value of variable a in the following code? unsigned char a; a = 0xFF + 1; printf("%d", a); 0xFF 0×100 0 ans 0×0 16. What is the output of the following program? #include void main() { printf(“n10!=9 : %5d”,10!=9); } ans 0 Error None of these options 17. #include void main() { int x=10; (x void main() { int a=14; a += 7; a -= 5; a *= 7; printf(“n%d”,a); } ans 98 89 None of these options 20. What is the output of the following code? #include #define T t void main() { char T = `T`; printf(“n%ct%cn”,T,t); } Error T t T T t t 21. The statement that prints out the character set from A-Z, is for( a = `z`; a < `a`; a = a – 1) printf("%c", &a); for( a = `a`; a <= `z`; a = a + 1 printf("%c", &a); for( a = `A`; a <= `Z`; a = a + 1) Ans printf("%c", a); for( a = `Z`; a <= `A`; a = a + 1) printf("%c", a); 22. The statement which prints out the values 1 to 10 on separate lines, is for( count = 1; count <= 10; count = count + 1) printf("%dn",count); for( count = 1; count 10; count = count + 1) printf(“%dn”,count); 23. What does the term `call-by-reference` refer to? Passing a copy of a variable into a function. Passing a pointer to a variable into a function. ans Choosing a random value for a variable. A function that does not return any values. 24. What is the output of the following code? #include void swap(int&, int&); void main() { int a = 10,b=20; swap (a++,b++); printf(“n%dt%dt”,a, b); } void swap(int& x, int& y) { x+=2; y+=3; } 14, 24 11, 21 ans 10, 20 Error 25. What is the output of the following program code #include void abc(int a[]) { a++; a[1]=612; } main() { char a[5]; abc(a); printf(“%d”,a[4]); } 100 612 Error<——ans None of these options 26. which of the following is true about recursive function i. it is also called circular definition ii. it occurs when a function calls another function more than once iii. it occurs when a statement within the function calls the function itself iv. a recursive function cannot have a return statement within it" i and iii<——ans i and ii ii and iv i, iii and iv 27.What will happen if you assign a value to an element of an array whose subscript exceeds the size of the array? The element will be set to 0 Nothing, its done all the time Other data may be overwritten Error message from the compiler 28. What is the output of the following code? #include void main() { int arr[2][3][2]={{{2,4},{7,8},{3,4},}, {{2,2},{2,3},{3,4}, }}; printf(“n%d”,**(*arr+1)+2+7); } 16 <——ans 7 11 Error 29. If int s[5] is a one dimensional array of integers, which of the following refers to the third element in the array? *( s + 2 ) <——ans *( s + 3 ) s + 3 s + 2 30. #include"stdio.h" main() { int *p1,i=25; void *p2; p1=&i; p2=&i; p1=p2; p2=p1; printf("%d",i); } The output of the above code is : Program will not compile ans 25 Garbage value Address of I 31. What is the output of the following code? void main() { int i = 100, j = 200; const int *p=&i; p = &j; printf("%d",*p); } 100 200 <——ans 300 None of the above 32. void main() { int i=3; int *j=&i; clrscr(); printf("%d%d",++*j,*(&i)); } What is the output of this program? 3 3 4 3 < ans 4,address of i printed Error:Lvalue required 33. What is the output of the following code? #include void main() { int arr[] = {10,20,30,40,50}; int *ptr = arr; printf(“n %dt%dt”,*ptr++,*ptr); } 10 20 10 10 ans 20 20 20 10 34. Which of these are reasons for using pointers? 1.To manipulate parts of an array 2.To refer to keywords such as for and if 3.To return more than one value from a function 4.To refer to particular programs more conveniently 1 & 3 no+1); } 35 What is the output of this program? 8 8 8 9 <——ans 9 8 8 , unpredictable 36. During initializing a union Only one member can be initialised. All the members will be initialised. Initialisation of a union is not possible. ans None of these options 37. Self referential structure is one a. Consisting the structure in the parent structure b. Consisting the pointer of the structure in the parent structure Only a Only b Both a and b Neither a nor b 38. Individual structure member can be initialized in the structure itself True False Compiler dependent None of these options 39. Which of the following is the feature of stack? All operations are at one end It cannot reuse its memory All elements are of different data types Any element can be accessed from it directly<——ans 40. When stacks are created Are initially empty ans Are initialized to zero Are considered full 41. What is time required to insert an element in a stack with linked implementation? (1) (log2n)<——ans (n) (n log2n) 42. Which of the following is the feature of stack? All operations are at one end It cannot reuse its memory All elements are of different data types Any element can be accessed from it directlyns 43. Time taken for addition of element in queue is (1) (n) (log n) ans None of these options 44. When is linear queue said to be empty ? Front==rear Front=rear- 1 Front=rear+1 Front=rear<——ans 45. When queues are created Are initially empty<——ans Are initialized to zero Are considered full None of the above 46. What would be the output of the following program? #include main() { printf(“n%c”, “abcdefgh”[4]); } abcdefgh d e <——ans error 47. Select the correct C code which will read a line of characters(terminated by a n) from input_file into a character array called buffer. NULL terminate the buffer upon reading a n. int ch, loop = 0; ch = fgetc( input_file ); while( (ch != `n`)&& (ch != EOF) ){buffer[loop] = ch; loop++; ch = fgetc(input_file );} buffer[loop] = NULL; int ch, loop = 0; ch = fgetc( input_file ); while( (ch = "n")&& (ch = EOF)) { buffer[loop] = ch; loop–; ch = fgetc(]input_file ); } buffer[loop]= NULL; int ch, loop = 0; ch = fgetc( input_file ); while( (ch “n”)&& (ch != EOF) ) { buffer[loop] = ch; loop++; ch = fgetc(input_file ); } buffer[loop] = -1; 48. What is the output of the following code ? void main() { int a=0; int b=0; ++a == 0 || ++b == 11; printf(“n%d,%d”,a,b); } 0, 1 1, 1 <——ans 0, 0 1, 0 49. What is the output of the following program? #define str(x)#x #define Xstr(x)str(x) #define oper multiply void main() { char *opername=Xstr(oper); printf("%s",opername); } opername Xstr multiply <——ans Xstr 50. What is the output of the following code ? #include #include void main() { char *a = “C-DACACTSn”; printf(“%sn”,a); } C-DAC ACTS ACTS C-DAC <——ans None of these 51. #include void main() { while (1) {if (printf(“%d”,printf(“%d”))) break; else continue; } } The output is Compile time error Goes into an infinite loop Whole-Testpaper CDAC PAPER ON 20th AUGUST 2006 DESD Hi folks! i am Anwarul Abbasi, i have managed to get some questions of the recent CDAC (all India) entrance paper of DESD, it was held on 20.08.2006, and here they are: Sections A ( C programming) Total Question 35 Sections B ( Digital, Mup,Electrical,Networking) Total Question 35 Sections C( Apittute) Total Question 30 Section A 1. What is the output of main() { int a=3,b=5,c=50; a=b==c; printf("a-%d\n",a); } Ans: a=0 2. What is the output of main() { int x=4; x<<1; printf("%d",x) } Ans: 8 3.Arrays are preffered over link list while? Ans: Accessing elements. 4. The getch() library function returns: Ans: ans Displays a character on the screen when any key is pressed. Section B 1. Consider the boolean expression x'yz'+x'y'z+x(y+z) and give its POS. Ans: NA 2. The logic Expression Y=Em(0,3,6,7,10,12,15) is equivalent to. Ans: NA 3. The number of 43 in 2's complement is Ans: 00101011 4. The process to process delivery of the entire message is the responsibilty of___________ Ans: Transport Layer 5. The IP is ____________ protocol Ans: Reliable and connection oriented 6. The ____________ sub layer is responsible for the operation of CSMA/CD access method in framing Ans: MAC 7. Gigabit ethernet has a data rate of _________ Mbps Ans: NA Section C Analogies: 1. Mansard: Roof:: Ans: Dormer: window 2. Curatot:painting:: Ans: Archvist:manuscript Antonyms: 1. Motile Ans: NA 2. Forge Whole-Testpaper CDAC Test in APR 2004 114. In the closing days of the civil War, President Abraham Lincoln was planning to graciously welcome the defeated confederate states back into the Union. After Lincoln was assassinated, however, the "Radical Republicans" in Congress imposed martial law in the South, creating resentment that caused problems well into this century. Had Lincoln lived, the history of regional conflict in 20th century America would have been considerably different. All of the following assumptions underline the argument above EXCEPT The imposition of martial law in the South was primarily responsible for the resentment felt in the South Had he lived, lincoln would have treated hte defeated South as he had planned Lincoln would have been able to prevent the Radical Republicans in Congress from imposing martial law in the South Factors other than the imposition of martial law in the South affected the history of regional conflicts in 20th century America 115 A politician wrote the following: "I realize there are shortcomings to the questionaire method. However, since I send a copy of the quetionnaire to every home in the district, I believe the results are quite representative.... I think the numbers received are so large that it is quite accurate even though the survey is not done scientifically" Most people who received the questionnaire have replied Most people in the district live in homes. the questionnaire method of data collection is unscientific A large, absolute number of replies is synonymous with accuracy 116 A worldwide ban on the production of certain ozone-destroying chemicals would provide only an illusion of protection. Quantities of such chemicals, already produced, exist as coolants in millions of refrigerators. When they reach the ozone layer in the atmosphere, their action cannot be halted. So there is no way to prevent these chemicals from damaging the ozone layer further. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? It is impossible to measure with accuracy the quantity of ozone-destroying chemicals that exist as coolants in refrigerators. In modern societies, refrigeration of food is necessary to prevent unhealthy and potentially life-threatening conditions. Even if people should give up the use of refrigerators, the coolants already in existing refrigerators are a threat to atmospheric ozone. The coolants in refrigerators can be fully recovered at the end of the useful life of the refrigerators and reused. 117 Every town with a pool hall has its share of unsavory characters. This is because the pool hall attracts gamblers and all gamblers are unsavory. Which of the following, if true cannot be inferred from the above? All gamblers are unsavory.All pool halls attract gamblers. Every town has unsavory characters. All gamblers are attracted by pool halls. Directions:- The workweek in a small business is a five-day workweek running from Monday through Friday. In each workweek, activities L,M,N,O and P must all be done.The work is subject to the following restrictions: L must be done earlier in the week than O and earlier than P M must be done earlier in the week than N and earlier than O No more than one of the activities can ever be done on any one day 118 Which of the following is an acceptable schedule starting from Monday to Friday? L, M, N, O, P <-------------ans M, N, O, N, M O, N, L, P, M P, O, L, M, L 119 In a game, exactly six inverted cups stand side by side in a straight line, and each has exactly one ball hidden under it. The cups are numbered consecutively 1 through 6. Each of the balls is painted a single solid color. The colors of the balls are green, magenta, orange, purple, red, and yellow. The balls have been hidden under the cups in a manner that conforms to the following conditions: The purple ball must be hidden under a lower-numbered cup than the orange ball. The red ball must be hidden under a cup immediately adjacent to the cup under which the magenta ball is hidden. The green ball must be hidden under cup 5. Which of the following could be the colors of the balls under the cups, in order from 1 through 6? Green, yellow, magenta, red, purple, orange Magenta, green, purple, red, orange, yellow Magenta, red, purple, yellow, green, orange <-------------ans Orange, yellow, red, magenta, green, purple Directions:- In a group there are five students coded as P Q R S T.Q and R are intelligent in mathematics and geology. P and R are intelligent in mathematics and hindi. Q and S are intelligent in psychology and buddhist studies.T is intelligent in buddhist studies hindi and psychology 120 who is intelligent in psychology, geology and buddhist studies Q <-------------ans T R S Directions:- The following questions are based on the following situations. Asha, Babli, Charn, Deepti, Eira, Farha are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age , but all have birth days on the same date in that year .The youngest is 17 years old and the oldest is Eira is 22.Farha is somewhere between Babli and Deepti in age.Asha is older than Babli. Charn is older than Deepti 121 If asha is one year older than charn the number of logically possible orderins of all six cousins by increasing age is 2 <-------------ans( Babli,Asha, Farha, Charn, Deepti, Eira) 3 4 5 122 It is easier to swim in the sea water than in river water because sea is vast mass of water sea water is generally calm the density of sea water is higher than river water <-------------ans they water of sea is cool and greenish 123 starting from a point x jayant walked 15metres towards the west he turned to his left and walked 20 metres he then turned to his left and walked 15 metres he then further turned to his right and walked 12 metres how far is jayant from the point x and in which direction? N 32 metres south - 47 metres east W-------E 42 metres north - 27 metres south <-------------ans S 124 Rock and roll music started in the 1950s as a young mans medium and rock is still best performed by men in their twenties and thirties. As rock performers grow into their forties and even fifties, they are simply less physically capable of producing the kind of exciting music they did when they were younger. All of the following assumptions underline the argument above EXCEPT: As rock performers mature, their performances tend to become less exciting Rock music is dominated by male performers Women performers have always played a significant role in rock music The physical demands of performing rock are better met by the young <-------------ans Mathematical Problems 125 Which of the following statements are true, if x + y + z = 10 y >= 5 and 4 >= z >= 3 1. x < z 2. x > y 3. x + z <= y 1 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only <-------------ans 126 The solution of the equation 4 - 5(2y + 4) = 4 is -2/5 8 4 -2 <-------------ans 127 When x5 + 1 is divided by (x - 2), the remainder is 15 17 31 33 128 How many terms of the series -9 , -6 , -3 ,.........must be taken such that the sum may be 66? 11 13 9 <-------------ans 10 129 The side of a rectangle are whole numbers. What must their lengths be for the perimeter for the rectangle to be numerically equal to its area? 3 and 6 4 and 5 4 and 6 5 and 5 130 A path 7 metres wide surrounds a circular lawn whose diameter is 252m. What is the area of path? 5698 sq.mtrs. 5000 sq.mtrs. 5500 sq. mtrs. None of these 131 If the negative of the sum of two consecutive odd numbers is less than -35, which of the following may be one of the numbers? 18 <-------------ans 16 15 13 132 What is the perimeter of a rectangle that is twice as long as it is wide and has the same area as a circle of diameter 8? 8(P)1/2 8P 12(2P)1/2 12P 133 Towns A and C are connected by a straight highway which is 60 miles long. The straight line distance between town A and town B is 50 miles, and the straight line distance from town B to town C is 50 miles. How many miles is it from town B to the point on the highway connecting town A and C which is closest to town B? 30 40 50 60 134 A batsman played 17 innings during a season and he was not out. The score of 85 improves his average by 3 runs in the 17th innings. His average score after 16th innings is 37 35 34 36 135 If paper costs 1 paisa per sheet, and a buyer gets a 2% discount on all the paper he buys after the first 1000 sheets, how much will it costs to buy 5000 sheets of paper? Rs 49.30 Rs 50.00 Rs 39.20 Rs 49.20 136 The income of a broker remains unchanged though the rate of commission is increased from 4% to 5%. The percentage of slump in business is 8% 1% 20% 80% 137 There are 4 quarts in a gallon. A gallon of motor oil sells for Rs.12 and a quart of the same oil sells for Rs.5. The owner of a rental agency has 6 machines and each machine needs 5 quarts of oil. What is the minimum amount of money she must spend to purchase enough oil ? Rs.84 Rs.94 Rs.96 Rs.102 138 A truck departed from Newton at 11:53a.m. and arrived in Far City, 240 miles away, at 4:41 p.m. on the same day. What was the approximate average speed of the truck on this trip? 16/1,200 MPH 40/288 MPH 1,494/240 MPH 50 MPH 139 A girl rode her bicycle from home to school, a distance of 15 miles, at an average speed of 15 miles per hour. She returned home from school by walking at an average speed of 5 miles per hour. What was her average speed for the round trip if she took the same route in both directions? 7.5 miles per hour 10 miles per hour 12.5 miles per hour 13 miles per hour 140 A is thrice as good a workman as B. If the time taken by B to do piece of works exceeds that taken by A by 8 days. In how many days A does the work. 8 4 12 10 141 The population of a town was 54,000 in the last census. It has increased 2/3 since then. Its present population is 18,000 36,000 72,000 90,000 142 One hundred job applicants show up in response to a classified ad. If 60 percent of them are female and if 3/4 of the female applicants are willing to relocate if the job demands it, how many are not willing to relocate? 55 45 15 It cannot be determined from the information given 143 Mr. Smith drove at an average speed of 50mph for the first two hours of his trip. For the next three hours, he averaged 20 mph. What was Mr. Smith`s average speed for the five-hour trip ? 20 mph 32 mph 35 mph 38 mph 144 A postal truck leaves its station and heads for Chicago, averaging 40mph. An error in the mailing schedule is spotted and 24 minutes after the truck leaves, a car is sent to overtake the truck. If the car averages 50mph, how long will it take to catch the postal truck? 1.6 hours 3 hours 2 hours 1.5 hours 145 The length breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. The length, breadth and height of the cuboid are increased by 100%, 200% and 200% respectively. Then the increase in the volume of the cuboid is 5 times 6 times 12 times 17 times 146 An Automobile covers the distance between two cities at a speed of 60km. per hour and on the return journey it covers at a speed of 40 km. per hour. Find the average speed. 60 50 48 55 147 A man buys 200 shares (par value of Rs.10) of a company, which pays 12% per annum as dividend, at such a price he gets 15% on his money. Find the market value(app.) of a share. Rs. 9 Rs. 12 Rs. 8 Rs. 7.50 148 An old picture has dimensions 33 inches by 24 inches. What one length must be cut from each dimension so that the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side is 2:3? 2 inches 6 inches 9 inches 10 1/2 inches 149 Hiralal earned a profit of Rs. 300 by selling 100 kg of mixture of A and B types of rice at a total price of Rs. 1100. What was the proportion of A and B types of rice in the mixture if the cost prices of A and B types of rice are Rs. 10 and Rs. 5 per kg respectively ? 3 : 2 2 : 5 2 : 773 5 : 2 150 A fraction has a value of 2/5. If the numerator is decreased by 2 and the denominator increased by 1, then the resulting fraction is 1/4. What is the value of the numerator of the original fraction ? 5 6 7 8 English Language Ability Directions:- The given pair of words contains a specific relationship to each other. Select the best pair of choices which expresses the same relationship as the given. 103 IGNOMINY : DISLOYALTY :: fame : heroism death : victory derelict : fool martyr : man 104 EXPLOSION : DEBRIS :: flood : water famine : food fire : ashes disease : germ 105 Bland : Piquant :: inane : relevant charlatan : genuine slavish : servile terse : serious 106 NEGLIGENT : REQUIREMENT :: remiss : duty cogent :argument easy : hard careful : position Directions:- Choose the best word, which is most opposite in the meaning to the given word. 107 FETTER : delay stretch comply thrive 108 SEDULOUS : rampant esoteric morose indolent 109 SUCCULENT : ordinary tasteless inexpensive invigorating 110 DORMANT : authoritative elastic active uninteresting 111 COURT : reject uncover infect subject Directions:- The given pair of words contains a specific relationship to each other. Select the best pair of choices which expresses the same relationship as the given. 112 INTIMIDATE : FEAR :: Maintain : satisfaction Astonish : wonder Soothe : concern Lion : tame Directions:- Pick out the best choice which can complete the incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully 113 It was an extremely pleasant surprise for the hutment-dweller when the Government officials told him that__________ he had to vacate hutment which he had been unauthorized occupying he had been gifted with a furnished apartment in a multistoried building he would be arrested for wrongly encroaching on the pavement outside his dwelling they would not accede to his request OO Programming Concepts 88 The ability to reuse objects already defined, perhaps for a different purpose, with modification appropriate to the new purpose, is referred to as Information hiding. Inheritance. Redefinition. Overloading 89 The term given to the process of hiding all the details of an object that do not contribute to its essential characteristics is called _____________. data-hiding packaging encapsulation abstraction 90 Object-oriented technology`s ______ feature means that a small change in user requirements should not require large changes to be made to the system. Abstraction Modularity Encapsulation Modelling 91 An object has _____. State Behaviour Identity. All of these options. 92 Which of the following is true: Class is an object of an object. Class is meta class. Class cannot have zero instances. None of these options. 93 If a derived class object is explicitly destroyed by applying the delete operator to a base-class pointer to the object, the _____ function is automatically called on the object Derived-class destructor. Base-class destructor. Base-class constructor. Derived-class constructor. 94 In object orientated programming a class of objects can _____________ properties from another class of objects utilize borrow inherit adapt 95 Contracts are not meant to be used in cases of _______. Composition. `has-a` relationship. `is-a` relationship. Both Composition and `has-a` relationship. 96 Inheritance through interface is called ________ Implementation inheritance. Definition inheritance. Delegation inheritance. Interface inheritance model. 97 When a class uses dynamic memory, what member functions should be provided by the class? An overloaded assignment operator. The copy constructor. A destructor. All of these optionsq 98 ______ means that both the data and the methods which may access it are defined together in the same unit. Data hiding. Encapsulation Data Binding None of these options 99 The term given to the process of hiding all the details of an object that do not contribute to its essential characteristics is called _____________. data-hiding. packaging. encapsulation. grouping 100 Car contains a steering wheel is example of ________ Composition Association Composition and Association None of these options 101 Can two classes contain member functions with the same name? No. Yes, but only if the two classes have the same name. Yes, but only if the main program does not declare both kinds. Yes, this is always allowed. 102 A contract is implemented through. Class Interface. Abstract Class. Interface and Abstract Class Programming in C 38 The Real constants in C can be expressed in which of the following forms Fractional form only Exponential form only ASCII form only Both Fractional and Exponential forms<------ans 39 The program, which translates high-level program into its equivalent machine language program, is called Transformer Language processor Converter None of these options<------ans 40 Consider the following statements. i.Multiplication associates left to right ii.Division associates left to right iii.Unary Minus associates right to left iv.subtraction associates left to right All are true<------ans only i and ii are true all are false only iii and iv are true 41 What will be the value of variable a in the following code? unsigned char a; a = 0xFF + 1; printf("%d", a); 0xFF 0x100 0 <------ans 0x0 42 What is the output of the following program ? #include <stdio.h> void main() { printf("\n10!=9 : %5d",10!=9); } 1 <------ans 0 Error None of these options 43 #include<stdio.h> void main() { int x=10; (x<0)?(int a =100):(int a =1000); printf(" %d",a); } Error <------ans 1000 100 None of these options 44 Which of the following shows the correct hierarchy of arithmetic operations in C (), **, * or /, + or - (), **, *, /, +, - (), **, /, *, +, - (), / or *, - or + <------ans 45 What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void main() { int a=14; a += 7; a -= 5; a *= 7; printf("\n%d",a); } 112 <------ans 98 89 None of these options 46 What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> #define T t void main() { char T = `T`; printf("\n%c\t%c\n",T, t); } Error T t T T <------ans.I did'nt get d correct ans t t 47 The statement that prints out the character set from A-Z, is for( a = `z`; a < `a`; a = a - 1) printf("%c", &a); for( a = `a`; a <= `z`; a = a + 1) printf("%c", &a); for( a = `A`; a <= `Z`; a = a + 1) <-----ans printf("%c", a); for( a = `Z`; a <= `A`; a = a + 1) printf("%c", a); 48 The statement which prints out the values 1 to 10 on separate lines, is for( count = 1; count <= 10; count = count + 1) printf("%d\n", count); for( count = 1; count < 10; count = count + 1) printf("%d\n", count);<------ans for( count = 0; count <= 9; count = count + 1) printf("%d ", count); for( count = 1; count <> 10; count = count + 1) printf("%d\n", count); 49 What does the term `call-by-reference` refer to? Passing a copy of a variable into a function. Passing a pointer to a variable into a function. <------ans Choosing a random value for a variable. A function that does not return any values. 50 What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void swap(int&, int&); void main() { int a = 10,b=20; swap (a++,b++); printf("\n%d\t%d\t",a, b); } void swap(int& x, int& y) { x+=2; y+=3; } 14, 24 11, 21 <------ans 10, 20 Error 51 What is the output of the following program code #include<stdio.h> void abc(int a[]) { a++; a[1]=612; } main() { char a[5]; abc(a); printf("%d",a[4]); } 100 612 Error <------ans None of these options 52 which of the following is true about recursive function i. it is also called circular definition ii. it occurs when a function calls another function more than once iii. it occurs when a statement within the function calls the function itself iv. a recursive function cannot have a return statement within it" i and iii<------ans i and ii ii and iv i, iii and iv 53 What will happen if you assign a value to an element of an array whose subscript exceeds the size of the array? The element will be set to 0 Nothing, its done all the time Other data may be overwritten Error message from the compiler 54 What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void main() { int arr[2][3][2]={{{2,4},{7,8},{3,4},}, {{2,2},{2,3},{3,4}, }}; printf("\n%d",**(*arr+1)+2+7); } 16 <------ans 7 11 Error 55 If int s[5] is a one dimensional array of integers, which of the following refers to the third element in the array? *( s + 2 ) <------ans *( s + 3 ) s + 3 s + 2 57 #include"stdio.h" main() { int *p1,i=25; void *p2; p1=&i; p2=&i; p1=p2; p2=p1; printf("%d",i); } The output of the above code is : Program will not compile <------ans 25 Garbage value Address of I 58 What is the output of the following code ? void main() { int i = 100, j = 200; const int *p=&i; p = &j; printf("%d",*p); } 100 200 <------ans 300 None of the above 59 void main() { int i=3; int *j=&i; clrscr(); printf("%d%d",++*j,*(&i)); } What is the output of this program? 3 3 4 3 <------ans 4,address of i printed Error:Lvalue required 60 What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void main() { int arr[] = {10,20,30,40,50}; int *ptr = arr; printf("\n %d\t%d\t",*ptr++,*ptr); } 10 20 10 10 <------ans 20 20 20 10 61 Which of these are reasons for using pointers? 1.To manipulate parts of an array 2.To refer to keywords such as for and if 3.To return more than one value from a function 4.To refer to particular programs more conveniently 1 & 3 <------ans Only 1 Only 3 All of the above 62 struct num { int no; char name[25]; }; void main() { struct num n1[]={{25,"rose"},{20,"gulmohar"},{8,"geranium"},{11,"dahalia"}}; printf("%d%d" ,n1[2].no,(*&n1+2)->no+1); } What is the output of this program? 8 8 8 9 <------ans 9 8 8 , unpredictable 63 During initializing a union Only one member can be initialised. All the members will be initialised. Initialisation of a union is not possible.<------ans None of these options 64 Self referential structure is one a. Consisting the structure in the parent structure b. Consisting the pointer of the structure in the parent structure Only a Only b Both a and b Neither a nor b 65 Individual structure member can be initialized in the structure itself True False Compiler dependent None of these options 66 Which of the following is the feature of stack? All operations are at one end It cannot reuse its memory All elements are of different data types Any element can be accessed from it directly<------ans<------ans 67 When stacks are created Are initially empty<------ans Are initialized to zero Are considered full None of these options 68 What is time required to insert an element in a stack with linked implementation? O(1) O(log2n)<------ans<------ans O(n) O(n log2n) 69 Which of the following is the feature of stack? All operations are at one end It cannot reuse its memory All elements are of different data types Any element can be accessed from it directly<------ans 70 Time taken for addition of element in queue is O(1) O(n) O(log n)<------ans None of these options 71 When is linear queue said to be empty ? Front==rear Front=rear-1 Front=rear+1 Front=rear<------ans 72 When queues are created Are initially empty<------ans Are initialized to zero Are considered full None of the above 73 What would be the output of the following program? #include <stdio.h> main() { printf("\n%c", "abcdefgh"[4]); } abcdefgh d e <------ans error 74 Select the correct C code which will read a line of characters (terminated by a \n) from input_file into a character array called buffer. NULL terminate the buffer upon reading a \n. int ch, loop = 0; ch = fgetc( input_file ); while( (ch != `\n`) && (ch != EOF) ) { buffer[loop] = ch; loop++; ch = fgetc( input_file ); } buffer[loop] = NULL; int ch, loop = 0; ch = fgetc( input_file ); while( (ch = "\n") && (ch = EOF) ) { buffer[loop] = ch; loop--; ch = fgetc( input_file ); } buffer[loop] = NULL; int ch, loop = 0; ch = fgetc( input_file ); while( (ch <> "\n") && (ch != EOF) ) { buffer[loop] = ch; loop++; ch = fgetc( input_file ); } buffer[loop] = -1; None of the above 75 What is the output of the following code ? void main() { int a=0; int b=0; ++a == 0 || ++b == 11; printf("\n%d,%d",a,b); } 0, 1 1, 1 <------ans 0, 0 1, 0 76 What is the output of the following program? #define str(x)#x #define Xstr(x)str(x) #define oper multiply void main() { char *opername=Xstr(oper); printf("%s",opername); } opername Xstr multiply <------ans Xstr 77 What is the output of the following code ? #include<stdio.h> #include<string.h> void main() { char *a = "C-DAC\0\0ACTS\0\n"; printf("%s\n",a); } C-DAC ACTS ACTS C-DAC <------ans None of these 78 #include<stdio.h> void main() { while (1) { if (printf("%d",printf("%d"))) break; else continue; } } The output is Compile time error Goes into an infinite loop Garbage values <------ans None of these options 79 Select the correct C statements which tests to see if input_file has opened the data file successfully. If not, print an error message and exit the program. if( input_file == NULL ) { printf("Unable to open file.\n"); exit(1); } if( input_file != NULL ) { printf("Unable to open file.\n"); exit(1); } while( input_file = NULL ) { printf("Unable to open file.\n"); exit(1); } None of these options 80 The code int i = 7; printf("%d\n", i++ * i++); prints 49 prints 56 <------ans is compiler dependent expression i++ * i++ is undefined 81 Recursive procedure are implemented by Linear list Queue Tree Stack<------ans 82 Which of these are reasons for using pointers? 1. To manipulate parts of an array 2. To refer to keywords such as for and if 3. To return more than one value from a function 4. To refer to particular programs more conveniently 1 & 3<------ans only 1 only 3 None of these options 83 The expression x = 4 + 2 % -8 evaluates to -6 6 4 None of these options 84 What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> main() { register int a=2; printf("\nAddress of a = %d,", &a); printf("\tValue of a = %d",a); } Address of a, 2 <------ans Linker error Compile time error None of these options 85 What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h> void main() { int arr[]={0,1,2,3,4,5,6}; int i,*ptr; for(ptr=arr+4,i =0; i<=4; i++) printf("\n%d",ptr[-i]); (as the 0=4,for -1 it becomes =3) } Error 6 5 4 3 2 0 garbage garbage garbage garbage 4 3 2 1 0 <------ans 86 Which of the following is the correct way of declaring a float pointer: float ptr; float *ptr; <------ans *float ptr; None of the above 87 If the following program (newprog) is run from the command line as: newprog 1 2 3 What would be the output of the following? void main (int argc, char*argv[]) { int I,j=0; for (I=0;I<argc;I++) j=j + atoi(argv[I]); printf("%d",j); } 123 6 123 Compilation error <------ans Fundamentals of Programming 27 The programming language that was designed for specifying algorithm Address ASCII ALGOL None of these options 28 _____ contains the addresses of all the records according to the contents of the field designed as the record key. Index <------ans Subscript Array File 29 _________ symbol is used for Processing of data. Oval Parallelogram <------ans Rectangle Diamond 30 __________ is the analysis tool used for planning program logic Protocol None of these options PROLOG Pseudocode 31 Machine language has two part format the first part is__________ and the second part is __________ OPCODE,OPERAND<------ans OPERAND,OPCODE DATA CODE,OPERAND OPERAND,CODEOP 32 Language Primarily used for internet-based applications ADA C++ JAVA <------ans FORTRAN 33 _________ is a point at which the debugger stops during program execution and awaits a further command. Memory Dump Watch point <------ans Break point None of these options 34 ________do not contain any program logic and are ignored by the language processor. Protocol Virus Comment None of these options 35 The component of data base management system is ________ Data definition Language Data manipulation Language Data definition Language and Data manipulation Language None of these options 36 The quality of Algorithm is judged on the basis of_________ Time requirement Memory Requirement Accuracy of solution All of these options <------ans 37 Advantages of using flow charts is Effective Analysis Efficient Coding Time consuming Effective Analysis and Efficient Coding <------ans C-DAC Latest Technical Questions C-DAC Latest 2011-2012 Latest Placement papers|C-DAC Aptitude,Reasoning Verbal Ability Questions| C-DACTechnical and HR Interview Questions|C-AC Latest 2011-2012 Recruitment Question Papers C-DAC Previously asked Questions C-DACTechnical Questions 1.What will be output if you will compile and execute the following c code? struct marks{ int p:3; int c:3; int m:2; }; void main(){ struct marks s={2,-6,5}; printf("%d %d %d",s.p,s.c,s.m); } 2 -6 5 2 -6 1 2 2 1 Compiler error Ans: C Explanation: Binary value of 2: 00000010 (Select three two bit) Binary value of 6: 00000110 Binary value of -6: 11111001+1=11111010 (Select last three bit) Binary value of 5: 00000101 (Select last two bit) 2.A function that uses variable types is called __________ Overloaded a template function a variable function a virtual function Ans:B 3.The OS of a computer may periodically collect all the free memory space to form contiguous block of free space. This is called Concatenation Garbage collection Collision Dynamic Memory Allocation Ans:B 4.The metadata is created by the (A)DML compiler (B)DML pre-processor (C)DDL interpreter (D)Query interpreter Ans: (C) 5.Which of the following correctly describes the contents of the filename AssemblyInfo.cs? It contains method-level attributes. It contains class-level attributes It contains assembly-level attributes. It contains structure-level attributes. Ans:C 6.Which method must be defined by a class implementing the java.lang.Runnable interface? void run() public void run() public void start() void run(int priority) Ans:B 7.Which of the following is the address of the router? The IP address The TCP address The subnet mask The default gateway Ans:D 8.Semaphores synchronize critical resources to prevent deadlock synchronize critical resources to prevent contention are used to do I/O are used for memory management Ans:A 9.The --------------functio can be used to compare two strings using a case-insensitive binary algorithm Strcmp() stricmp() strcasecmp() stristr() Ans:C 10.A Plan to overcome the risk called as Migration Plan Master plan Maintenance plan Mitigation Plan Ans:D Placement Paper CDAC model questions for project engineers, CDAC free solved sample placement papers, CDAC Electronics and electrical, communication engineering questions with answers.CDAC practice questions with answers,CDAC largest collection of question papers, CDAC Engineering questions for all streams Electronics and Electrical Objective Questions 1. Which of the following pairs does-not match? (A) Dielectric strength of air 3 to 5 kV/mm (B) Vacuum may be used for reflective insulation of liquid O2 tank (C) Permissible water content in transformer oil is 50 ppm (D) Carbon-pile resistors for insulation of oil-filled cables (Ans) 2. Memory of a computer can be increased by (A) increasing the magnetic bubble diameter (B) decreasing the magnetic bubble diameter (Ans) (C) using adomax, a recent hard magnetic material (D) using strontium titanate (Sr Ti O3) 3. The residual magnetic flux density is more in (A) metallic magnets (Ans) (B) ceramic magnets (C) graphite (D) iron oxide 4. Manganese ferrites is a 1:1 mixture of (A) MnO and CdO (B) MnO and Fe2O3 (Ans) (C) MnCl2 and Fe2O3 (D) MnCl2 and CdO 5. High frequency transformer cores are generally made of (A) Cast iron (B) Mumetal (C) Ferrite (Ans) (D) Graphite 6. For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the use is made of (A) ferrite (Ans) (B) piezoelectric (C) pyroelectrics (D) ferromagnetics above 7680 C 7. The poles of alternators are usually made of (A) wrought iron (B) permalloy (Ans) (C) CdS (D) alnico 8. In a semi-conductor strain gauge, the change in resistance on application of strain is mainly due to the change in its (A) lenght (B) diameter (C) resistivity (D) length and diameter (Ans) 9. Transformer oil is a liquid insulator and is mainly used in transformer. It is filled into transformer tank to serve the following purposes: I. To transfer the heat generated inside the transformer core and windings, to the outer cooling surfaces. II. To main insulation in the primary and secondary windings. (A) Only I is correct (B) Only II is correct (C) Both I and II are correct (Ans) (D) None of these 10. Electrons in an atom may be visualized by (A) spectroscopic techniques (Ans) (B) radiography (C) optical microscope (D) etching techniques 11. Most malleable metal is (A) Au (B) Ag (Ans) (C) Cr (D) Osmium 12. As the temperature of a p-type semi-conductor is gradually and continuously increased, the fermi level will move (A) into the valence band (Ans) (B) into the conduction band (C) towards the middle of the forbidden gap (D) into the region between the acceptor level and the valence band 13. Which one of the following polarization mechanisms/sets of mechanisms contribute to the static dielectric constant of a homopolar neutral dielectric? (A) Electronic (B) Electronic and ionic (C) Electronic, ionic and dipolar (D) Electric and dipolar (Ans) 14. Consider the following materials: 1. Pure silica 2. Bakelite 3. Hard rubber 4. Paraffin The correct sequence of the DECREASING order of loss angles (60 Hz) of these dielectric materials is (A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 1,4,3,2 (C) 4,1,2,3 (D) 4,3,1,2 (Ans) 15. Which one of the following materials is piezoelectric? (A) Pb2 Au (B) BaTiO3 (Ans) (C) MgAl2O4 (D) NiFe2O4 16.The residual resistivity of metals (A) is essentially independent of temperature (B) increases linearly with increasing temperature (Ans) (C) decrease linearly with increasing temperature (D) initially increase linearly with temperature and then remains constant 17. Consider the following metals: 1. Zinc 2. Gold 3. Silver 4. Copper The correct sequence of the increasing order of their resistivities is (A) 4,3,1,2 (B) 3,4,2,1 (Ans) (C) 4,3,2,1 (D) 3,4,1,2 18. A type-I super-conductor maintained at a temperature T CDAC/C-CAT CDAC Placement Papers C-DAC,C-CAT Microprocessor objective type questions with answers C-CAT 2013 model Questions with answers TYPICAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PART ? I OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Each Question carries 2 marks. Choose the correct or best alternative in the following: Q.1 If the crystal oscillator is operating at 15 MHz, the PCLK output of 8284 is (A)2.5 MHz. (B)5 MHz. (C)7.5 MHz. (D)10 MHz. Ans:(A) Q.2In which T-state does the CPU sends the address to memory or I/O and the ALE signalfor demultiplexing (A)T1. (B)T2. (C)T3. (D)T4. Ans During the first clocking period in a bus cycle,which is called T1, the address of the memory or I/O location is sent out and the control signals ALE, DT/R? and IO/M?are also output. Hence answer is (A). Q.3 If a1M1× DRAM requires 4 ms for a refresh and has 256 rows to be refreshed, no more than __________ of time must pass before another row is refreshed. (A)64 ms. (B)4 ns. (C)0.5 ns. (D)15.625 Answer is (B) Q.4 In a DMA write operation the data is transferred (A)from I/O to memory. (B)from memory to I/O. (C)from memory to memory. (D)from I/O to I/O. Ans A DMA writes operation transfers data from an I/Odevice to memory. Hence answer is (A). Q.5 Which type of JMP instruction assembles if the distance is 0020 h bytes (A)near. (B)far. (C)short. (D)none of the above. AnsThe three byte near jump allows a branch or jump within ± 32K bytes. Hence answer is (A). Q.6A certain SRAM has 0CS=,0WE=and1OE=. In which of the followingmodes this SRAM is operating (A)Read (B)Write (C)Stand by (D)None of the above Ans For CS?=WE?=0, write operation. Hence answer is (B) . Q.7 Which of the following is true with respect to EE PROM? (A)contents can be erased byte wise only. (B)contents of full memory can be erased together. (C)contents can be erased using ultra violet rays (D)contents can not be erased Answer is (C). Q.8Pseudo instructions are basically (A)false instructions. (B)instructions that are ignored by the microprocessor. (C)assembler directives. (D)instructions that are treated like comments. Pseudo-instructions are commands to the assembler.All pseudo-operations start with a period. Pseudo-instructions are composed of a pseudo-operation which may befollowed by one or more expressions. Hence answer is (C). Q.9 Number of the times the instruction sequence below will loop before coming out of loop is MOV AL, 00hA1: INC AL JNZ A1 (A)00 (B)01 (C)255 (D)256 Ans Answer is (D) Q.10 What will be the contents of register AL after the following has been executed MOV BL, 8C MOV AL, 7E ADD AL, BL (A)0A and carry flag is set (B)0A and carry flag is reset (C)6A and carry flag is set (D)6A and carry flag is reset Ans , Result is 1,0A. Hence answer is (A). Q.11Direction flag is used with (A)String instructions. (B)Stack instructions. (C)Arithmetic instructions. (D)Branch instructions. Ans The direction flag is used only with the string in structions. Hence answer is (A). Q.12Ready pin of a microprocessor is used (A)to indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive inputs. (B)to indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive outputs. (C)to introduce wait states.(D) to provide direct memory access. Ans This input is controlled to insert wait states into the timing of the microprocessor.Hence answer is (C). Q.13 These are two ways in which a microprocessor can come out of Halt state. (A)When hold line is a logical 1. (B)When interrupt occurs and the interrupt system has been enabled. (C)When both (A) and (B) are true. (D) When either (A)or (B) are true. Ans Answer is (A) Q.14In the instruction FADD, F stands for (A)Far. (B)Floppy. (C)Floating. (D)File. Ans Adds two floating point numbers. Hence answer is (C). Q.15SD RAM refers to (A)Synchronous DRAM (B)Static DRAM (C)Semi DRAM (D)Second DRAM Ans, Answer is (A) Q.16 In case of DVD, the speed is referred in terms of n X (for example 32 X). Here, Xrefers to (A)150 KB/s (B)300 KB/s (C)1.38 MB/s (D)2.4 MB/s Ans Answer is (C). Q.17Itanium processor of Intel is a (A)32 bit microprocessor. (B)64 bit microprocessor. (C)128 bit microprocessor. (D)256 bit microprocessor. Ans The Itanium is a 64-bit architecture microprocessor. Hence answer is (B). Q.18 LOCK prefix is used most often (A)during normal execution. (B)during DMA accesses (C)during interrupt servicing. (D)during memory accesses. Ans LOCK is a prefix which is used to make an instruction of 8086 non-interruptable.Hence answer is (C). Q.19The Pentium microprocessor has______execution units. (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4 Ans The Pentium microprocessor is organized with three execution units. One executes floating-point instructions, and the other two (U-pipe and V-pipe) execute Hence answer is (C). Q.20EPROM is generally erased by using (A)Ultraviolet rays (B)infrared rays (C)12 V electrical pulse (D)24 V electrical pulse AnsThe EPROM is erasable if exposed to high-intensity ultraviolet light for about 20 minutes or less. Hence answer is (A) Q.21 Signal voltage ranges for a logic high and for a logic low in RS-232C standard are (A)Low = 0 volt to 1.8 volt, high = 2.0 volt to 5 volt (B)Low =-15 volt to ?3 vol, high = +3 volt to +15 volt (D)Low = +3 volt to +15 volt, high = -3 volt to -15 volt (E)Low = 2 volt to 5.0 volt, high = 0 volt to 1.8 volt Ans Answer is (B) Q.22The PCI bus is the important bus found in all the new Pentium systems because (A)It has plug and play characteristics (B)It has ability to function with a 64 bit data bus (C)Any Microprocessor can be interfaced to it with PCIcontroller or bridge (D)All of the above Ans, Answer is (D). Q.23 Which of the following statement is true? (A)The group of machine cycle is called a state. (B)A machine cycle consists of one or more instructioncycle. (C)An instruction cycle is made up of machine cycles a nd a machine cycle ismade up of number of states. (D)None of the above Ans An instruction cycle consists of several machine cycles. Hence Answer is (B). Q.24 8251 is a (A)UART (B)USART (C)Programmable Interrupt controller (D)Programmable interval timer/counter Ans The Intel 8251 is a programmable communication interface. It is USART. Q.25 8088 microprocessor has (A)16 bit data bus (B)4 byte pre-fetch queue (C)6 byte pre-fetch queue (D)16 bit address bus Ans The 8088 is a 16-bit microprocessor with an 8-bitdata bus. The 16-bit addressbus. Hence answer is (D) MPPGCL Placement paper MPPGCL-MPPGENCO Aptitude and Reasoning model questions 1. Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get? A. 57% B. 60% C. 65% D. 90% Answer: Option A Explanation: Total number of votes polled = (1136 + 7636 + 11628) = 20400. Required percentage = (11628/20400 x 100)% = 57%. 2. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit? A. 1 B. 14 C. 20 D. 21 Answer: Option C Explanation: Clearly, the numbers which have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit, have squares that end in the digit 1. Such numbers from 1 to 70 are 1, 9, 11, 19, 21, 29, 31, 39, 41, 49, 51, 59, 61, 69. Number of such number =14 :. Required percentage = (14/70 x 100)% = 20%. 3. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? A. 9 B. 10 C. 12 D. 20 Answer: Option B Explanation: Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km less. Time taken to cover 9 km = (9 /54 x 60) min = 10 min. 4. The cost price of a Rs.100 stock at 4 discount, when brokerage is 1/4 % is: A. Rs. 95.75 B. Rs. 96 C. Rs. 96.25 D. Rs. 104.25 Answer: Option C Explanation: C.P. = Rs.(100 - 4 + 1/4) = Rs.96.25 5. The banker's gain on a sum due 3 years hence at 12% per annum is Rs. 270. The banker's discount is: A. Rs. 960 B. Rs. 840 C. Rs. 1020 D. Rs. 760 Answer: Option C Explanation: T.D. = (B.G. x 100) /(R x T) = Rs.(270 x 100) / (12 x 3) = Rs.750. :. B.D. = Rs.(750 + 270) = Rs. 1020. 6. The banker's discount of a certain sum of money is Rs. 72 and the true discount on the same sum for the same time is Rs. 60. The sum due is: A. Rs. 360 B. Rs. 432 C. Rs. 540 D. Rs. 1080 Answer: Option A Explanation: Sum = B.D. x T.D. = Rs.72 x 60 = Rs.72 x 60 = Rs.360. B.D. - T.D. 72 - 60 12 7. A cistern 6m long and 4 m wide contains water up to a depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total area of the wet surface is: A. 49 m2 B. 50 m2 C. 53.5 m2 D. 55 m2 Answer: Option A Explanation: Area of the wet surface = [2(lb + bh + lh) - lb] = 2(bh + lh) + lb = [2 (4 x 1.25 + 6 x 1.25) + 6 x 4] m2 = 49 m2 8. The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years). A. 8, 20, 28 B. 16, 28, 36 C. 20, 35, 45 D. None of these Answer : Option B Explanation: Let their present ages be 4x, 7x and 9x years respectively. Then, (4x - 8) + (7x - 8) + (9x - 8) = 56 => 20x = 80 => x = 4 :. Their present ages are 4x = 16 years, 7x = 28 years and 9x = 36 years respectively. 9. What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 30 ? A. 196 B. 630 C. 1260 D. 2520 Answer: Option B Explanation: L.C.M. of 12, 18, 21 30 2 | 12 - 18 - 21 - 30 ---------------------------- = 2 x 3 x 2 x 3 x 7 x 5 = 1260. 3 | 6 - 9 - 21 - 15 ---------------------------- Required number = (1260 ÷ 2) | 2 - 3 - 7 - 5 = 630. 10. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of water is 16 : 81. How much wine did the cask hold originally? A. 18 litres B. 24 litres C. 32 litres D. 42 litres Answer: Option B Explanation: Let the quantity of the wine in the cask originally be x litres. Then, quantity of wine left in cask after 4 operations = [x (1 - 8/x)4] litres. :. (x(1- (8/x))4) = 16 x 81 => (1-8/x)4 = (2/3)4 => ((x-8)/x) = 2/3 => 3x - 24 = 2x => x = 24 11. To fill a tank, 25 buckets of water is required. How many buckets of water will be required to fill the same tank if the capacity of the bucket is reduced to two-fifth of its present ? A. 10 B. 35 C. 62.5 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these Answer: Option C Explanation: Let the capacity of 1 bucket = x. Then, the capacity of tank = 25x. New capacity of bucket = 2 x 5 Required number of buckets = 25x = (25x * 5/2x) (2x/5) = 125 = 62.5 2 12. The value of 489.1375 x 0.0483 x 1.956 is closet to: 0.0873 x 92.581 x 99.749 A. 0.006 B. 0.06 C. 0.6 D. 6 Answer: Option B Explanation: 489.1375 x 0.0483 x 1.956 = 489 x 0.05 x 2 0.0873 x 92.581 x 99.749 0.09 x 93 x 100 = 489 9 x 93 x 10 = 163 x 1 279 10 = 0.58 = 0.058 = 0.06. 10 Direction (for Q.No. 13): Find out the wrong number in the series. 13. 196, 169, 144, 121, 100, 80, 64 A. 169 B. 144 C. 121 D. 100 E. 80 Answer: Option E Explanation: Numbers must be (14)2, (13)2, (12)2, (11)2, (10)2, (9)2, (8)2. So, 80 is wrong. 14. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two-digit number? A. 69 B. 78 C. 96 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these Answer: Option D Explanation: Let the ten's digit be x and unit's digit be y. Then, x + y = 15 and x - y = 3 or y - x = 3. Solving x + y = 15 and x - y = 3, we get: x = 9, y = 6. Solving x + y = 15 and y - x = 3, we get: x = 6, y = 9. So, the number is either 96 or 69. Hence, the number cannot be determined. 15. In how many ways a committee, consisting of 5 men and 6 women can be formed from 8 men and 10 women? A. 266 B. 5040 C. 11760 D. 86400 E. None of these Answer: Option C Explanation: Required number of ways = (8C5 x 10C6) = (8C3 x 10C4) = 8 x 7 x 6 x 10 x 9 x 8 x 7 3 x 2 x 1 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 11760. Direction (for Q.No. 16): Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement (s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and Give answer (A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (C) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (D) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (E) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 16. Two towns are connected by railway. Can you find the distance between them? I. The speed of the mail train is 12 km/hr more than that of an express train. II. A mail train takes 40 minutes less than an express train to cover the distance. A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer E. Both I and II are necessary to answer Answer: Option D Explanation: Let the distance between the two stations be x km. I. Then, speed of the mail train = (y + 12) km/hr. II. x - x = 40 . y (y + 12) 60 Thus, even I and II together do not give x. Correct answer is (D). 17. If Rs. 782 be divided into three parts, proportional to 1/2: 2/3: 3/4, then the first part is: A. Rs. 182 B. Rs. 190 C. Rs. 196 D. Rs. 204 Answer: Option D Explanation: Given ratio = 1/2: 2/3: 3/4 = 6 : 8 : 9 1st part = Rs.(782 x 6/23) = Rs.204 18. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is: A. 18 B. 24 C. 19 D. 20 Answer: Option B Explanation: Let the fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 be x. Then, 5 : 8 : 15 : x => 5x = (8 x 15) x = (8 x 15) = 24. 5 19. A machine P can print one lakh books in 8 hours, machine Q can print the same number of books in 10 hours while machine R can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are started at 9 A.M. while machine P is closed at 11 A.M. and the remaining two machines complete work. Approximately at what time will the work (to print one lakh books) be finished ? A. 11:30 A.M. B. 12 noon C. 12:30 P.M. D. 1:00 P.M. Answer: Option D Explanation: (P + Q + R)'s 1 hour's work = ( 1/8+ 1/10 + 1/12 ) = 37/120. Work done by P, Q and R in 2 hours = ( (37/120) x 2 ) = 37/60 Remaining work = ( 1 - 37 ) = 23 60 60 (Q + R)'s 1 hour's work = ( 1/10 + 1/12 ) = 11 /60 Now, 11 work is done by Q and R in 1 hour. 60 So, 23 work will be done by Q and R in ( 60/11 x 23/60 ) = 2311 hours = 2 hours. 60 So, the work will be finished approximately 2 hours after 11 A.M., i.e., around 1 P.M. 20. A can lay railway track between two given stations in 16 days and B can do the same job in 12 days. With help of C, they did the job in 4 days only. Then, C alone can do the job in: A. 9 1 days 5 B. 9 2 days 5 C. 9 3 days 5 D. 10 Answer: Option C Explanation: (A + B + C)'s 1 day's work = 1/4 , A's 1 day's work = 1 , 16 B's 1 day's work = 1 . 12 Therefore C's 1 day's work = 1 - ( 1 + 1 ) = ( 1 - 7 ) = 5 4 16 12 4 48 48 So, C alone can do the work in 48 = 9 3 days. 5 5 21. The least number which when divided by 5, 6 , 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided by 9 leaves no remainder, is: A. 1677 B. 1683 C. 2523 D. 3363 Answer: Option B Explanation: L.C.M. of 5, 6, 7, 8 = 840. Required number is of the form 840 k + 3 Least value of k for which (840k + 3) is divisible by 9 is k = 2. :. Required number = (840 x 2 + 3) = 1683. 22. If 144 = 14.4 , then the value of x is: 0.144 x A. 0.0144 B. 1.44 C. 14.4 D. 144 Answer: Option A Explanation: 144 = 14.4 0.144 x => 144 x 1000 = 14.4 144 x => x = 14.4 = 0.0144 1000 23. 3. 617 + 6.017 + 0.617 + 6.0017 = ? A. 6.2963 B. 62.965 C. 629.6357 D. None of these Answer: Option C Explanation: 617.00 6.017 0.617 + 6.0017 ------------- 629.6357 --------------- 24. (v3 - (1v3))2 simplifies to : A. 3/4 B. 4/v3 C. 4/3 D. None of these Answer : Option C Explanation : (v3 - (1/v3))2 = (v3)2 + (1/v3)2 - 2 x v3 x 1/v3 = 3 + (1/3)-2 = 1+ 1/3 = 4/3 25. A train 240 m long passes a pole in 24 seconds. How long will it take to pass a platform 650 m long? A. 65 sec B. 89 sec C. 100 sec D. 150 sec Answer: Option B Explanation: Speed = 240 m/sec = 10 m/sec. 24 Required time =( (240 + 650)/ 10) sec = 89 sec. 26. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct? A. 2 p.m. on Tuesday B. 2 p.m. on Wednesday C. 3 p.m. on Thursday D. 1 p.m. on Friday Answer: Option B Explanation: Time from 12 p.m. on Monday to 2 p.m. on the following Monday = 7 days 2 hours = 170 hours. :. The watch gains (2 + 4 and 4/5 min. or 34/5 min. in 170 hrs. Now, 34/5 min. are gained in 170 hrs. :. 2 min. are gained in (170 x 5/34 x 2) hrs = 50 hrs. Watch is correct 2 days 2 hrs. after 12 p.m. on Monday i.e., it will be correct at 2 p.m. on Wednesday. 27. The banker's discount on Rs.1600 at 15% per annum is the same as true discount on Rs.1680 for the same time and at the same rate. The time is: A. 3 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 months Answer: Option B Explanation: S.I. on Rs.1600 = T.D. on Rs.1680. :. Rs. 1600 is the P.W. of Rs. 1680, i.e., Rs. 80 is on Rs. 1600 at 15%. :. Time = (100 x 80)/1600 x 15 year = 1/3 year = 4 months. 28. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit? A. 30% B. 70% C. 100% D. 250% Answer: Option B Explanation: Let C.P.= Rs. 100. Then, Profit = Rs. 320, S.P. = Rs. 420. New C.P. = 125% of Rs. 100 = Rs. 125 New S.P. = Rs. 420. Profit = Rs. (420 - 125) = Rs. 295. Required percentage = (295/420 x 100 % = 1475 % = 70% (approximately). 21 29. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'LEADING' be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together? A. 360 B. 480 C. 720 D. 5040 E. None of these Answer: Option C Explanation: The word 'LEADING' has 7 different letters. When the vowels EAI are always together, they can be supposed to form one letter. Then, we have to arrange the letters LNDG (EAI). Now, 5 (4 + 1 = 5) letters can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways. The vowels (EAI) can be arranged among themselves in 3! = 6 ways. Required number of ways = (120 x 6) = 720. 30. Present ages of Seema and Naresh are in the respective ratio of 5:7. Five years hence the ratio of their ages becomes 3:4 respectively. What is Naresh's present age in years ? A. 25 B. 40 C. 30 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these Answer : Option E Explanation : Let the present ages of Seema and Naresh be 5x and 7x years respectively According to the question, 5x+5 = 3 7x+5 4 => 21x + 15 = 20 x + 20 => x = 20-15 = 5 :. Naresh's present age =7x years = 7 x 5 = 35 years